Infinitely Long Wire with Loop (Magnetic Field)

Click For Summary
The discussion revolves around calculating the magnetic field at point O due to infinitely long wires and loops with a constant current. Key equations for magnetic fields from straight wires and loops are provided, with specific attention to how different shapes of loops contribute to the overall magnetic field. Participants clarify that only certain sections of the wire and loop contribute to the magnetic field, and adjustments are made based on the geometry of the setup. The final calculations for various points (A through H) reflect the net contributions of the magnetic fields, with some confusion resolved regarding the direction and magnitude of the fields. The conversation concludes with a consensus on the importance of accurately accounting for contributions from both wires and loops.
Hitchslaps
Messages
6
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



The wires below are infinitely long and some of them are with loops and semi loops. The current I is constant. What is the magnetic field in point O, when R is the distance from it?

Questions:
In F, E and H, the magnetic field exerted by the terminal infinitely long wire is 0 because it is 180 degrees?
If the loop is a semi-circle, I use B/2? If the loop is a quarter of a circle, then B/4 and so on?

How to solve for G?


Homework Equations



B= μI/2R
B=2μI/4piR

The Attempt at a Solution



I included in my calculations the magnetic fields of both the infinite wire and the loop.

A: μI/2R Outwards
B: μI/2R + 2μI/4piR Outwards
C: μI/2R - 2μI/4piR Outwards
D: μI/2R - μI/2R +2μI/8piR = 2μI/8piR Inwards
E: 2μI/8piR Inwards
F: μI/2R + 2μI/16piR Inwards
G: ?
H: μI/2R + 2μI/8piR + μI/2R Inwards
 

Attachments

  • photo.JPG
    photo.JPG
    44.7 KB · Views: 866
Physics news on Phys.org
You are asked to find the field at point O right?
Then yes: EF and H have sections of wire that do not contribute.
If B is the field of a complete loop, then an 1/nth of a loop contributes B/n.

You have equations:
BL = μI/2R <---<<< for the field center of a current loop radius R
BW =2μI/4piR=μI/(2piR) <---<<< the field radial distance R from infinite straight wire

This makes for a nice way to summarize your answers to make double-checking easy:

If we make BW=B, then BL=pi.B

Using + to indicate "into the page"
Your answers are:

A: -B
B: -(pi+1)B (what is the total current at the place the loop and the wire meet?)
C: -(pi-1)B (there is another difference between C and B)
D: +(pi-pi+1/2)B = B/2 (are you saying the two wires cancel out? Check by RH rule.)
E: +B/2 (which is half that due to a wire - does that make sense?)
F: +(pi+1/4)B
G: ?
H: +(pi + 1/2 +pi)

... I think one of us got confused between the contributions of the wire and that of the loop-section.

Checking:
http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/HBASE/magnetic/curloo.html#c2
http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/magnetic/magcur.html

$$B_L=\frac{\mu_0 I}{2R}=\pi\frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi R}=\pi B_W$$

For some of them, only half the wire contributes to the field.
Did you check that the final direction you gave is that for the net field - i.e. a negative magnitude into the page is a positive magnitude out of the page - so the net direction is "outwards".

For G - it's the same as the others: what's the problem?
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes 1 person
Thank you for your help!
I confused the two equations, sorry.

My answers now:
A: -B
B: -(pi+1)B The current is NI, which is 2I? So the loop’s magnetic field is μ2I/2R= μI/R.
C: +(+pi-1)B The wires don’t meet, so the current stays the same?
D: +(2+1/2pi)B
E: +pi.B/2
F: +(1/4pi+1)B
G: +(2+1/2pi)B
H: +(1 +1/2pi)Byes, these are all net directions, assuming I'm correct.
 
Last edited:
It's interesting about the gap in C isn't it?
It may just be that the gap is supposed to be invisibly small and shown large for emphasis.
I think you have the right of it: one subtracts the wire while the other adds it.

Sometimes you have to account for gaps by subtracting the field that would otherwise be present.

You seem to have a handle on what's required enough to check your own math - well done.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
8K
Replies
3
Views
4K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
11K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
13K
Replies
10
Views
10K