Integral [0,PI] sinx^2/ sqrt(x)

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on evaluating the convergence of the integral \(\int_0^{\pi} \frac{\sin^2 x}{\sqrt{x}} \, dx\) using the comparison test. Participants establish that this integral can be compared to \(\int_0^{\pi} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} \, dx\), which converges. The key takeaway is that since \(\sin^2 x \leq 1\), the integral \(\int_0^{\pi} \frac{\sin^2 x}{\sqrt{x}} \, dx\) is bounded above by a convergent integral. Additionally, the discussion clarifies the conditions under which the p-test applies, specifically noting that for improper integrals, convergence depends on the bounds of integration.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of improper integrals
  • Familiarity with the comparison test for convergence
  • Knowledge of the p-test for integrals
  • Basic trigonometric identities, specifically \(\sin^2 x\)
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the comparison test in detail, focusing on its application to improper integrals
  • Learn about the p-test for integrals, including conditions for convergence and divergence
  • Explore the properties of trigonometric functions and their integrals, particularly \(\sin^2 x\)
  • Investigate other comparison functions for integrals, such as \(\frac{1}{x}\) and \(\frac{1}{x^p}\)
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in calculus, particularly those focusing on integral convergence, as well as mathematicians interested in the application of the comparison test and p-test in evaluating improper integrals.

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Homework Statement



I have to use the comparison test although I'm bad at coming up with what to compare it to



Homework Equations



What if I compare it to 1/sqrt(x)

The Attempt at a Solution



I take the integral of 1/sqrt(x) from [0,PI] I get -2sqrt(x) and then I use limits and evaluate
I get 2sqrt(PI)

Can I do this? So since this integral is larger then the one in question my integral converges?
 
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Yes you have the general idea. In a sense, we're sandwiching the integral \displaystyle\int ^{\pi}_0 \frac{\sin ^2x}{\sqrt{x}} between two integrals with finite value, showing that it converges. You have the upper bound right; since \sin ^2x\le 1, then \displaystyle\int ^{\pi}_0 \frac{\sin ^2x}{\sqrt{x}}\le \displaystyle\int ^{\pi}_0 \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}. By p-test you can show that this larger integral converges. You had this part. However, you do need some "protection" against your integral diverging to negative infinity. This should be pretty obvious though.
 
What do you mean protection?
 
By "protection" Arkuski means that you also need to show that your integral is bounded below, not just bounded above. We know that sin2(x) ≤ 1 for all real x. Is there a lower bound for this as well?
 
I'm kind of confused. Guess: lower bound is -1? For all real x?
 
Why would it be 0. Because you are squaring?
 
Arkuski said:
Yes you have the general idea. In a sense, we're sandwiching the integral \displaystyle\int ^{\pi}_0 \frac{\sin ^2x}{\sqrt{x}} between two integrals with finite value, showing that it converges. You have the upper bound right; since \sin ^2x\le 1, then \displaystyle\int ^{\pi}_0 \frac{\sin ^2x}{\sqrt{x}}\le \displaystyle\int ^{\pi}_0 \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}. By p-test you can show that this larger integral converges. You had this part. However, you do need some "protection" against your integral diverging to negative infinity. This should be pretty obvious though.

Doesn't p test say that convergent if p > 1 and divergent if p<=1 ? So how come this integral that I'm comparing to is convergent? I don't get it.
 
Jbreezy said:
Doesn't p test say that convergent if p > 1 and divergent if p<=1 ? So how come this integral that I'm comparing to is convergent? I don't get it.

It depends on the bounds that the integral has. Let c\in ℝ^+. The integral \displaystyle\int_c^∞\frac{1}{x^p}dx is convergent if p&gt;1 and divergent otherwise. However, the integral \displaystyle\int_0^c\frac{1}{x^p}dx is convergent if p&lt;1 and divergent otherwise.

Please note that in the following argument I'm throwing precision into the wind. I like to think of this in terms of inverses. Suppose we start with f(x)=\frac{1}{x}. This will be our base. Now let's think about g(x)=\frac{1}{x^2}. This function gets comparitively closer to the x-axis, but farther away from the y-axis. We note that \displaystyle\int_c^∞\frac{1}{x^2}dx converges, and intuitively so since it hugs the x-axis so tight. Now let us imagine its inverse, g^{-1}(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}. Since the inverse essentially reflects a function over the diagonal line y=x, we now see that g^{-1}(x) hugs the y-axis very closely, and an integral that accounts for that area, namely \displaystyle\int_0^c\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}dx, converges.
 
  • #10
I think that Arkuski misspoke. The p-test doesn't apply here - it's used for infinite series, and that's not what you have here.

This integral is improper, but it converges:
$$\int_0^{\pi}\frac{dx}{\sqrt{x}}$$
 
  • #11
Ah clear. Thanks.
 
  • #12
What about if the lower bound was 1 and the upper bound infinity? In that case, the larger function or our f(x) (1/sqrt(x)) is divergent, and you can't prove that g(x) (sin^2(x)/sqrt(x)) is divergent based on f(x) being divergent.

I'm guessing you'd have to pick a different integral for comparison, but I'm stuck as to which one to pick.

I know sin^2(x)/x is less than or equal to sin^2(x)/sqrt(x) for all x>1, so I thought maybe 1/x would work for comparison, but I graphed them and it doesn't.
 
  • #13
Jbreezy said:
I'm kind of confused. Guess: lower bound is -1? For all real x?
In fact, c
Can the integrand ##\sin^2(x)/\sqrt{x}## ever be ##< 0## on the interval ##0 < x \leq \pi?## In fact, can it ever be ##<0## for any ##x > 0?##
 

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