Integral Calc: Integrated by Parts - Is it Correct?

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SUMMARY

The forum discussion centers on the integration of the improper integral \(\int^\infty_0 dx \, x^{\alpha-1} e^{-x} (a+bx)^{-\alpha}\) using integration by parts. The user incorrectly assigns \(\Gamma(\alpha)\) as \(u\) in their integration by parts setup. The correct approach requires recognizing that \(\Gamma(\alpha)\) is a definite integral, not a function of \(x\). The integration by parts must be reformulated to properly compute the integral.

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Hi
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I want to integrate this integral and ask if my work is correct or not.
[tex] \int^\infty_0 dx x^{\alpha-1} e^{-x} (a+bx)^{-\alpha}[/tex]
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I want to integrate it by parts, so I have
[tex] (a+bx)^{-\alpha} = v [/tex]
[tex] -b\alpha(a+bx)^{-\alpha-1}dx = dv[/tex]
[tex] x^{\alpha-1} e^{-x} dx = du [/tex]
[tex] \Gamma(\alpha) = u[/tex]
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now the integral becomes
[tex] \Gamma(\alpha)(a+bx)^{-\alpha}\vert\text{from 0 to}\infty + \int^\infty_0 \Gamma(\alpha) b\alpha(a+bx)^{-\alpha-1}dx = 0[/tex]
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the problem is in integration by parts. Is it correct to put $$\Gamma(\alpha) = u$$. if it is not correct how can I compute this integral? please help.
 
Last edited:
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No, that is not correct. Taking [itex]du= x^{\alpha-1} e^{-x} dx[/tex]<br /> you want u to be the <b>anti-derivative</b> of that as a function of x. But [itex]\Gamma(\alpha)[itex]is the <b>definite</b> integral from 0 to infinity.[/itex][/itex][/itex]
 

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