Integral of sinc function using Fourier series

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral of the sinc function, specifically ##\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin x}{x} dx##, using Fourier series. Participants explore the relationship between Fourier coefficients and the integral, while also referencing concepts such as Riemann-Lebesgue's lemma and Parseval's identity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the evenness of the sinc function and its implications for evaluating the integral. There are attempts to relate the integral to sums of Fourier coefficients and questions about the convergence of these series. Some participants express uncertainty about the validity of certain methods for evaluating the integral.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants offering various approaches to the problem and questioning the assumptions underlying their methods. There is no explicit consensus, but several lines of reasoning are being explored, including the potential need for absolute convergence in the context of series rearrangement.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that the integral's existence is not established by the methods discussed, and there are references to the need for absolute convergence in certain arguments. The discussion includes considerations of splitting the integral over intervals and the implications of evenness in the sinc function.

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Homework Statement
Show that the Fourier coefficients of $$u(x)=\begin{cases} \frac{\sin x}{x} & 0<|x|\leq\pi, \\ 1 & x=0.\end{cases}$$ are $$c_n=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{(n-1)\pi}^{(n+1)\pi}\frac{\sin x}{x}dx.$$ Use this to evaluate ##\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin x} x dx##.
Relevant Equations
I'm not sure.
Showing that the (complex) Fourier coefficients of ##u(x)## are as specified is a simple exercise, which I've managed to do, but how do I then go about evaluating ##\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin x} x dx##? The coefficients do not have an explicit formula, right? Note, the Fourier transform has not been introduced yet. I thought this has something to do with Riemann-Lebesgue's lemma or even Parseval's identity, but probably I'm mistaken.
 
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By evenness of \sin x/x, \begin{split}<br /> \int_0^\infty \frac{\sin x}x\,dx &amp;= \frac12 \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\sin x}x\,dx \end{split}. To evaluate the right hand side, one can either split the real line into intervals of width 2\pi centered at even multiples of \pi or into intervals of width 2\pi centered at odd multiplies of \pi. The results must be the same*, so <br /> \begin{split}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\sin x}x\,dx &amp;= \frac12 \left(\sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty \int_{((2n)-1)\pi}^{((2n)+1)\pi} \frac{\sin x}{x}\,dx<br /> + \sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty \int_{((2n+1)-1)\pi}^{((2n+1)+1)\pi} \frac{\sin x}{x}\,dx \right) \end{split}

*Assuming the integral exists, which I don't believe this method establishes.
 
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pasmith said:
*Assuming the integral exists, which I don't believe this method establishes.
Which integral do you mean?

If I understand you right, this is your argument: ##\sum_{n\in\mathbb Z} c_n## is just the function evaluated at ##0##, so we have $$1=\sum_{n\in\mathbb Z} c_{2n}+\sum_{n\in\mathbb Z}c_{2n+1}=\frac{2}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\sin x} x dx.$$ And by evenness, we conclude that ##\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin x} xdx=\frac{\pi}{2}##.
 
I assume you mean $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\sin x} x dx.$$ In my computation above it seems like we require ##\sum_{n\in\mathbb Z} c_n## to converge absolutely, so that one can rearrange the series and sum the even terms first and then the odd one's, or vice versa.
 
I think I take back the requirement of absolute convergence. If ##\sum_{k\geq} a_k## converges, we can always write $$\sum_{k\geq 1}a_k = \sum_{k\geq 1}(a_{2k}+a_{2k-1}),$$ but not $$\sum_{k\geq 1}a_k = \sum_{k\geq 1}a_{2k}+\sum_{k\geq 1}a_{2k-1}.$$ Here, however, we can write the series in the latter form, since, assuming that ##\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\sin x} x dx## converges, we have that ##\sum_{n\in\mathbb Z} c_{2n}## and ##\sum_{n\in\mathbb Z}c_{2n+1}## both converge.
 
pasmith said:
By evenness of \sin x/x, \begin{split}<br /> \int_0^\infty \frac{\sin x}x\,dx &amp;= \frac12 \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\sin x}x\,dx \end{split}. To evaluate the right hand side, one can either split the real line into intervals of width 2\pi centered at even multiples of \pi or into intervals of width 2\pi centered at odd multiplies of \pi. The results must be the same*, so <br /> \begin{split}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\sin x}x\,dx &amp;= \frac12 \left(\sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty \int_{((2n)-1)\pi}^{((2n)+1)\pi} \frac{\sin x}{x}\,dx<br /> + \sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty \int_{((2n+1)-1)\pi}^{((2n+1)+1)\pi} \frac{\sin x}{x}\,dx \right) \end{split}

*Assuming the integral exists, which I don't believe this method establishes.
I'm confused. Could you clarify what you are suggesting on how to evaluate ##\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\sin x} x dx##? I don't see how this is possible unless we have absolute convergence of ##\sum_{n\in\mathbb Z} c_n##.
 
It is easier to justify if one starts from \begin{split}<br /> \sum_{n=-N}^N c_n &amp;= \sum_{n=-N}^N \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{(n-1)\pi}^{(n+1)\pi} \frac{\sin x}x\,dx \\<br /> &amp;= \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-(N+1)\pi}^{-N\pi} \frac{\sin x}{x}\,dx + \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-N\pi}^{N\pi} \frac{\sin x}x\,dx + \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{N\pi}^{(N+1)\pi} \frac{\sin x}x\,dx \\<br /> &amp;= \frac{2}{\pi} \int_0^{N\pi} \frac{\sin x}x\,dx + \frac1\pi \int_{N\pi}^{(N+1)\pi} \frac{\sin x}x\,dx\end{split} so that <br /> \left| \sum_{n=-N}^N c_n - \frac2\pi \int_0^{N\pi} \frac{\sin x}x\,dx \right| = \left|\frac 1\pi \int_{N\pi}^{(N+1)\pi} \frac{\sin x}{x}\,dx \right| \leq \frac 1\pi \int_{N\pi}^{(N+1)\pi} \frac 1x\,dx = \frac1\pi \log\left(1 + \frac 1N \right).
 
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