Integrate 1/z^2 Over a Closed Curve

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of the function 1/z² over a closed curve that encloses the origin. Participants are exploring the implications of Cauchy's Integral Theorem and related concepts in complex analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply Cauchy's Integral Theorem but questions the analyticity of the function at the origin. Other participants suggest using Cauchy's integral formula and discuss the implications of different choices for f(z). There is confusion regarding the expected result of the integral and the conditions under which the theorems can be applied.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants offering various approaches and questioning the assumptions made about the function's analyticity. Some guidance has been provided regarding the use of Cauchy's integral formula, but there is no explicit consensus on the correct interpretation or outcome.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of applying Cauchy's theorems, particularly in relation to the function's behavior at singularities. There is uncertainty about the correct application of theorems and the expected results of the integration.

Poopsilon
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\int_\alpha\frac{1}{z^2}dz

I can't figure out how to integrate this over a closed circle which contains the origin on its interior. I'm assuming it is equal to 2πi; is there a way to apply Cauchy's Integral Theorem? If I set f(z)=1/z then that is not analytic on the interior, so I don't see how I can apply the theorem.
 
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oops I mean't cauchy's integral theorem. But that theorem would require that f(z)=1/z by analytic at zero.
 
Poopsilon said:
oops I mean't cauchy's integral theorem. But that theorem would require that f(z)=1/z by analytic at zero.

Yeah, you can't use that theorem here...
 
oops shoot I meant cauchys integral formula! sorry about that lol. How can I use that? Would f(z) just equal 1?

Edit: Ah wait so I could use the generalized formula with f(z)=1 and get 2πi, is that right?

Super Duper Edit: But wait I'm sorry that would give me 0 because the derivative of a constant function is 0, but I'm quite sure it should be 2πi, so something's wrong.
 
Last edited:
It's not 2pi*i. It's 0. Do what you did in the other thread and integrate around the unit circle and put z=exp(it). Change it to an integral dt. Use the cauchy integral theorem on the difference between the unit circle and the contour alpha.
 

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