Integrate sinx/x using fourier transform?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the integration of the function sin(x)/x using Fourier transforms. Participants explore various approaches, including the relationship between the sinc function and the rectangle waveform, and the implications of using the Fourier transform of 1/x.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests using the inverse Fourier transform of the sinc function to retrieve the rectangle function and subsequently integrate it.
  • Another participant proposes expressing the integral as the Fourier transform or inverse Fourier transform of 1/x, questioning the utility of this approach.
  • A later reply discusses the Fourier transform of the rectangle function and its connection to the sinc function, indicating that the approach might not yield new insights since the integral is already known.
  • Another participant argues that using 1/x simplifies the process, providing a mathematical expression for the Fourier transform of t^{-1} and relating it back to the integral of sin(t)/t.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the best approach to integrate sin(x)/x using Fourier transforms, with no consensus reached on a definitive method.

Contextual Notes

Some participants assume familiarity with Fourier transforms and their properties, while the discussion does not resolve the effectiveness of the proposed methods or clarify the underlying assumptions regarding the integral.

nabeel17
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I learned how to integrate it using the complex plane and semi circle contours but I was wondering if there is a way using Fourier transforms. I know that the Fourier transform of the rectangle wave form is the sinc function so I was thinking maybe i could do an inverse Fourier on sinc x and get back the rectangle function and integrate that? Or something along those lines.
 
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anyone?
 
Sure just write the integral as the Fourier transform or inverse Fourier transform of 1/x. Of course if you can take the transform you already know the integral.
 
lurflurf said:
Sure just write the integral as the Fourier transform or inverse Fourier transform of 1/x. Of course if you can take the transform you already know the integral.

Why 1/x? why does that help? I was thinking to change sinx/x by taking the Fourier transform of it which is just the box function and see if that would get me anywhere.
 
I will assume the following
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \! \frac{\sin(t)}{t} \, \mathrm{d}t\\
\mathrm{sinc}(t)=\lim_{x\rightarrow t} \frac{\sin(x)}{x}\\
\mathcal{F} \{ \mathrm{f}(t) \}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \! \mathrm{f}(t)e^{\imath \, \omega \, t} \, \mathrm{d}t$$
What you suggest works fine
we know (as you say)
$$\mathcal{F}\left\{\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}}(\mathrm{sgn}(1-t)+\mathrm{sgn}(1+t))\right\}=\mathrm{sinc}(\omega)\\
\text{then}\\
\left. \int_{-\infty}^\infty \! \frac{\sin(t)}{t} \, \mathrm{d}t=\sqrt{2 \pi} \mathcal{F} ^{-1} \{ \mathrm{sinc}(\omega) \} \right|_{t=0}$$$$=\frac{\pi}{2}((\mathrm{sgn}(1-0)+\mathrm{sgn}(1+0)))=\pi$$
This does not really help us though as to do that we already know the integral.
 
1/x seems simpler to me
$$\mathcal{F} \{ t^{-1} \}=\imath \, \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}}\mathrm{sgn}(t)\\
\text{so}\\
\left. \int_{-\infty}^\infty \! \frac{\sin(t)}{t} \, \mathrm{d}t=-\imath \, \sqrt{2 \pi} \mathcal{F} \{ t^{-1} \}\right|_{\omega=0}=\pi \, \mathrm{sgn}(0)=\pi$$
 
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