Integrating Natural Logarithmic Functions

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The discussion centers on integrating a double integral involving a natural logarithmic function, specifically 1/(x+y) over the region R = [1,2] x [0,1]. The user initially integrates with respect to y, resulting in ln((x+1)/x) and seeks guidance on how to proceed with the integration with respect to x. They consider using the exponential function to simplify the integral but are unsure if this approach is valid. Other participants clarify that integration by parts is the appropriate method for integrating ln(x), and the user acknowledges this realization, noting that integrating ln(x+1) - ln(x) is simpler than their original approach. The conversation highlights the importance of recalling integration techniques when working with logarithmic functions.
wubie
Hello,

It has been over a year since I last took calculus. And I don't recall how to take the integral of a natural logarithmic function. Here is the question that I am supposed to integrate.

double integral 1/(x+y) dA

where

R = [1,2] X [0,1]

So what I did first was integrate with respect to y first. I ended up with

ln(x+y)

with an upper limit of 1 and a lower limit of 0. Once simplified I get

ln(x+1) - ln x or ln( (x+1)/x )

Now I have to integrate with respect to x. But I can't remember how to take the integral of a natural log function. How do I proceed from here?

I can't remember if I can do the following:

Let G(x) = integral of ln( (x+1)/x ) dx

then

e^G(x) = integral of e^ln( (x+1)/x ) dx

which would simplify to

integral of (x+1)/x dx.

After I get a solution to the above equation I would then take the log of

ln e^G(x) = ln (answer)

to get

G(x) = ln (answer).

Can I do that? I can't remember. If not, how do I proceed from here?

Any help is appreciated. Thankyou.
 
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You can't move the exponential into the integral like that.

That said, IIRC:

\int ln(x) dx= x ln(x)-x
(You can derive this by using parts)
 
!@#$!@#$!@#$#!@$!@#!

I should have known I could have done it by parts. I see that now. Thanks NateTG.
 
And it's a lot easier to integrate \ln(x+1) - \ln x than it is to integrate \ln (x+1)/x. :smile:
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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