Integrating to determine speed as a function of time

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The discussion focuses on integrating to determine speed as a function of time, specifically using Newton's second law, F = ma. Participants clarify the relationship between resistive force and acceleration, leading to the equation m(dv/dt) = -bv. The integration of dv/v is discussed, with the result being ln(v) - ln(vo), indicating how to express velocity in terms of time. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding the integration process in solving the problem. Overall, the thread provides insights into applying physics principles to analyze motion under resistive forces.
AryRezvani
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Homework Statement



2lk90kw.jpg


Homework Equations



The above formulas

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm lost on where to start with this. The object has an intial velocity in the X direction and has the resistive force of the plontons acting upon it when it lands. What exactly is the equation located in the problem?
 
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Hi AryRezvani! :smile:
AryRezvani said:
What exactly is the equation located in the problem?

That's good ol' Newton's second law, F = ma

F = -bv, ma = mdv/dt, so mdv/dt = bv, so dv/v = -b/m dt :wink:

(the "m =" appears to be a misprint)
 
tiny-tim said:
Hi AryRezvani! :smile:That's good ol' Newton's second law, F = ma

F = -bv, ma = mdv/dt, so mdv/dt = bv, so dv/v = -b/m dt :wink:

(the "m =" appears to be a misprint)

Thanks for the response Tiny-Tim :)

Okay, so i follow you somewhat. F = -bv (general formula for resistive force).

According to Newton's second law, F=ma which can be rewritten as F=m(dv/dt).

You then equate those two, and you get m(dv/dt)=-bv.

What happens after this? (dv/v) is the derivative of velocity with respect to velocity? :eek:
 
AryRezvani said:
(dv/v) is the derivative of velocity with respect to velocity? :eek:

ah, no …

∫ dv/v is a short way of writing ∫ (1/v) dv …

just integrate it! :smile:
 
Ohh so when you integrate that you get ln(v)?
 
AryRezvani said:
Ohh so when you integrate that you get ln(v)?

yes! :smile:

(to be precise, ln(v) - ln(vo))
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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