Integrating Trigonometric Functions with Exponential Factors

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integral \(\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{1+e^{\sin x}}\), which involves integrating a trigonometric function with an exponential factor. Participants are exploring various methods to evaluate this integral and are encountering different results based on their approaches.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to evaluate the integral using symmetry properties and substitution methods but encounters a discrepancy in results. Some participants question the validity of substituting trigonometric functions with variables when the limits of integration are not appropriately handled.
  • Others suggest considering the periodic nature of trigonometric functions and the implications of integrating over a full period.
  • There is discussion about the correct handling of the cosine function in terms of its sign over different intervals, prompting suggestions to split the integral into cases.
  • Participants explore the implications of changing variables and how that affects the limits of integration, leading to confusion about the resulting values.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various participants providing insights and clarifications. Some guidance has been offered regarding the treatment of the cosine function and the need to consider the symmetry of the integral. However, there is no explicit consensus on the final evaluation of the integral, and multiple interpretations are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the integral's evaluation may be complicated by the periodic nature of sine and cosine functions, as well as the potential for misinterpretation when changing variables. The original poster expresses confusion about the limits of integration and the resulting values from different methods.

Saitama
Messages
4,244
Reaction score
93

Homework Statement


[tex]\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{1+e^{\sin x}}[/tex]

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


Let ##I=\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{1+e^{\sin x}}##

Since ##\int_{a}^{b}f(x) dx=\int_{a}^{b} f(a+b-x)dx##
Hence,
[tex]I=\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{1+e^{-\sin x}}=\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{e^{\sin x}dx}{1+e^{\sin x}}[/tex]

[tex]2I=\int_{0}^{2 \pi}dx[/tex]
[tex]I=\pi[/tex]

This is the right answer but when I try it with the following method it turns out to be zero.

Let ##\sin x=t## or ##\cos xdx=dt##. Multiply the numerator and denominator by ##\cos x## & ##\cos x=\sqrt{1-t^2}##
The integral transforms to
[tex]I=\int_{0}^{0} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2} (1+e^t)}[/tex]
Both the upper and lower limits are zero. The value of I should be zero. What have I done wrong? :confused:

Any help is appreciated. Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Yo Naruto fan :)
Last year i was confused with the same problem... when a trigonometric function is applied to 0 or 2∏, we get the same result... As trigonometric functions are periodic. You can draw a graph and u can see that the area under the curve is not 0. This implies that you can not substitute a trigonometric function like "sin x" with a variable like "t" when the difference between the upper and lower limits is greater than ∏/2... It doesn't appear wrong... but it is something like to prove LHS=RHS by multiplying both sides of an equation with zero...!
Hope this helped!
 
Hello there,

Be careful with:

[itex]\cos x = \sqrt{1- \sin^{2} x}[/itex]​

In particular, for [itex]0 \le x \le 2\,\pi[/itex]:

[itex] \cos x = \left \{ \begin{array}{ll}<br /> \sqrt{1- \sin^{2} x} & 0 \le x \le \pi/2\\<br /> -\sqrt{1- \sin^{2} x} & \pi/2 < x \le 3\,\pi/2 \\<br /> \sqrt{1- \sin^{2} x} & 3\,\pi/2 < x \le 2\,\pi<br /> \end{array}\right .[/itex]​

In your case, split the integral in 3 cases, and go ahead.
 
Pranav-Arora said:

Homework Statement


[tex]\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{1+e^{\sin x}}[/tex]


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Let ##I=\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{1+e^{\sin x}}##

Since ##\int_{a}^{b}f(x) dx=\int_{a}^{b} f(a+b-x)dx##
Hence,
[tex]I=\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{1+e^{-\sin x}}=\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{e^{\sin x}dx}{1+e^{\sin x}}[/tex]

[tex]2I=\int_{0}^{2 \pi}dx[/tex]
[tex]I=\pi[/tex]

This is the right answer but when I try it with the following method it turns out to be zero.

Let ##\sin x=t## or ##\cos xdx=dt##. Multiply the numerator and denominator by ##\cos x## & ##\cos x=\sqrt{1-t^2}##
The integral transforms to
[tex]I=\int_{0}^{0} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2} (1+e^t)}[/tex]
Both the upper and lower limits are zero. The value of I should be zero. What have I done wrong? :confused:

Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

JFGobin has provided the correct explanation, but you should note that once you split the integral up, you don't really save any work - you basically need to do the same thing you did the first time to get the result (plus at one point you need to evaluate ##\displaystyle \int_{-1}^{1}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}dt##, which is easy, but still extra work). You do get the same answer though (I checked).
 
Curious3141 said:
JFGobin has provided the correct explanation, but you should note that once you split the integral up, you don't really save any work - you basically need to do the same thing you did the first time to get the result (plus at one point you need to evaluate ##\displaystyle \int_{-1}^{1}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}dt##, which is easy, but still extra work). You do get the same answer though (I checked).

Thank you Curious and jfgobin! :smile:

I tried your advice but still cannot reach the final answer.
The given integral can be separated into three integrals.
[tex]I=\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{1-\sin^2x}(1+e^{\sin x})}dx-\int_{\pi/2}^{3\pi/2} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{1-\sin^2x}(1+e^{\sin x})}dx+\int_{3\pi/2}^{2\pi} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{1-\sin^2x}(1+e^{\sin x})}dx[/tex]
Using the substitution ##\sin x=t##.
[tex]I=\int_{0}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^t)}+\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^t)}+\int_{-1}^{0} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^t)}[/tex]
[tex]I=I_1+I_2+I_3[/tex]

I did a change of variable in ##I_3##, I substituted ##t=-x## or ##dt=-dx##. The integral ##I_3## transforms to
[tex]I_3=\int_{1}^{0} \frac{-dx}{\sqrt{1-x^2}(1+e^{-x})}[/tex]
which is equivalent to
[tex]I_3=\int_{0}^{1} \frac{e^tdt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^{t})}[/tex]

Now I can add ##I_3## and ##I_1##. I end up with this:
[tex]I=\int_{0}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}+\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^t)}[/tex]
But my expression doesn't include the integral mentioned by Curious3141. :confused:
 
Pranav-Arora said:
Thank you Curious and jfgobin! :smile:

I tried your advice but still cannot reach the final answer.
The given integral can be separated into three integrals.
[tex]I=\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{1-\sin^2x}(1+e^{\sin x})}dx-\int_{\pi/2}^{3\pi/2} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{1-\sin^2x}(1+e^{\sin x})}dx+\int_{3\pi/2}^{2\pi} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{1-\sin^2x}(1+e^{\sin x})}dx[/tex]
Using the substitution ##\sin x=t##.
[tex]I=\int_{0}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^t)}+\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^t)}+\int_{-1}^{0} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^t)}[/tex]
[tex]I=I_1+I_2+I_3[/tex]

I did a change of variable in ##I_3##, I substituted ##t=-x## or ##dt=-dx##. The integral ##I_3## transforms to
[tex]I_3=\int_{1}^{0} \frac{-dx}{\sqrt{1-x^2}(1+e^{-x})}[/tex]
which is equivalent to
[tex]I_3=\int_{0}^{1} \frac{e^tdt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^{t})}[/tex]

Now I can add ##I_3## and ##I_1##. I end up with this:
[tex]I=\int_{0}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}+\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^t)}[/tex]
But my expression doesn't include the integral mentioned by Curious3141. :confused:

##I_1+I_3=I_2##. So if ##I_1+I_3=\int_{0}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}## then ##I=2\int_{0}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}=\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}## (because the integral is symmetric in t).
 
Dick said:
##I_1+I_3=I_2##. So if ##I_1+I_3=\int_{0}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}## then ##I=2\int_{0}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}=\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}## (because the integral is symmetric in t).

How do you get a factor of 2? :confused:

[tex]I_1=\int_0^1 \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^t)}[/tex]
[tex]I_3=\int_0^1 \frac{e^t dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^t)}[/tex]

[tex]I_1+I_3=\int_0^1 \frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}[/tex]

How do you get ##I_1+I_3=I_2##?
 
Pranav-Arora said:
How do you get ##I_1+I_3=I_2##?

Look back at the expressions you started with for I1, I2 and I3. I3 integrates ##\frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^t)}## from -1 to 0, I1 integrates from 0 to 1. Put them together and it's the same as integrating -1 to 1. Which is I2.
 
Dick said:
Look back at the expressions you started with for I1, I2 and I3. I3 integrates ##\frac{dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}(1+e^t)}## from -1 to 0, I1 integrates from 0 to 1. Put them together and it's the same as integrating -1 to 1. Which is I2.

Silly me. :redface:

Thanks a lot, Dick! :smile:
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 23 ·
Replies
23
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K