Integration Over Spheres in R^d

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Mathmajor2010
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Homework Statement


I'm a bit confused at a single step in a proof. Let [itex]\phi \in L^1(\mathbb{R}) \cap C(\mathbb{R}^d)[/itex] be a function such that for any [itex]\omega \in \mathbb{R}^d[/itex], [itex]\phi(\omega) = \psi(||\omega)||[/itex]. That is, the function depends solely on the norm of the vector input, so it is constant on spheres I suppose.

Let [itex]S = \{ x \in \mathbb{R}^d : ||x|| = 1\}[/itex]. Then, we have
[tex] \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \phi(\omega) e^{-ix^T \omega} d\omega = \int_0^{\infty} t^{d-1} dt \int_{S} \phi(t ||\omega||) e^{-ix^t \omega} dS(\omega)[/tex]

I'm not sure exactly what they did to jump from the first integral to the second. I understand the "idea" is that since the function is constant on spheres, simply integrate on the sphere of radius t and then integrate as t goes over all positive numbers, but I'm not sure how they got that [itex]t^{d-1}[/itex] . It's been a while since I've had a multivariable calculus class, so I'm not sure what I'm missing. I assume this is some coordinate transformation and the function of t comes out of a Jacobian of some sort, but I'm not exactly sure. Any suggestions in the right direction would be great. Thanks!
 
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I don't quite understand as the sphere S you have defined is d-1 dimensional.

As an aside the [itex]t^{d-1}[/itex] comes from the Jacobian