Interesting problematic integral

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the evaluation of the integral \(\int_{0}^{\infty} 1 - x \, \sin \left( \frac{1}{x} \right) \, \text{dx}\). Participants explore various approaches to solving this integral, including series expansions and substitutions, while addressing the behavior of the integrand near zero and infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion over the integral's evaluation and suggests that the integral diverges but may converge due to the oscillatory nature of the sine function.
  • Another participant seeks clarification on the integrand's form, questioning whether it is \((1-x)\sin(1/x)\) or \(1 - x\sin(1/x)\).
  • A participant recalls a related integral, \(\int_0^{+\infty}{\frac{\sin(x)}{x}dx}=\frac{\pi}{2}\), and suggests a substitution \(u=1/x\) as a potential method for solving the integral.
  • A link to the Dirichlet integral is provided as a reference that may be relevant to the discussion.
  • One participant asserts that the value of the integral is \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) and mentions a proof in an attachment.
  • Another participant references a previous solution to a similar problem and questions whether the integral can be evaluated without special functions, indicating they have made some progress with a series expansion approach.
  • The same participant rewrites the integrand using a series expansion but expresses uncertainty about how to evaluate the resulting expression.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the best approach to evaluate the integral, and multiple competing views and methods are presented throughout the discussion.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the oscillatory behavior of the integrand as \(x\) approaches zero and the implications for convergence, but do not resolve the mathematical steps involved in the evaluation.

Nebuchadnezza
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This is not a bookquestion by far. It does have a nice solution, but I am stumpled on how to get it

[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} 1 - x \, \sin \left( \frac{1}{x} \right) \, \text{dx}[/tex]

Now I could split the integrals into two pieces, where the first part obviously goes towards infinity. The second integral also seem to tend to infinity but at a slower pace, which makes the integral converge.

I tried to make a serie expansion of the sine, but that did not work out. The answer is supposed to be [tex]\frac{\pi}{4}[/tex]

Any hints, tips or solutions?

Another problem is that [tex]x \, \sin \left( \frac{1}{x} \right)[/tex] oscillates faster and faster when approaching zero. The limit is zero, but this confuses me...
 
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Is the integrand (1-x)sin(1/x) or 1 - xsin(1/x) ? Please clarify.
 
Hmm, this integral reminds me of the integral

[tex]\int_0^{+\infty}{\frac{\sin(x)}{x}dx}=\frac{\pi}{2}[/tex]

This integral is well-documented and if you want, I can provide you a link on how to find it.

So my suggestion is to do something similar. Maybe your first step should be the substitution [tex]u=1/x[/tex]...
 
It is true that the value of the integral is pi/4. (Proof in attachement)
 

Attachments

  • definite integral.JPG
    definite integral.JPG
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a micromass, the integral is the same as JJacquelin solved. I am familiar with that problem, and I have solved that problem earlier. See this thread

https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=490052

Now nice solution JJackuelin, but my question is. Is it possible to evaluate this integral without the use of special functions ?

I think I made some progress atleast...

I can rewrite [itex]1-x\sin\left(\frac1x\right)[/itex] as [itex]\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{k+1}\left(\frac1x\right)^{2k}}{(2k+1)!}[/itex]

Then my integral turns into

[tex]I = \left[\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{k+2}\left(\frac1x\right)^{2k-1}}{(2k+1)!(2k-1)}\right]_0^{\infty}[/tex]

Which obviously is [itex]0[/itex] when [itex]\lim_{x \to \infty}[/itex]

Though I have no idea how to evaluate that mess above...
 

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