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I Interesting question: why is ln(-1) in polar form...?

  1. Mar 30, 2017 #1
    Hi all,
    I was doing some math and I stumbled upon a very interesting thing. When I do ln(-1), I get πi, and when I turn that into polar coordinates on the calculator, it gives me πeiπ/2 . Why is that? I'm very curious to know, because they are so intertwined!

    Thank you
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 30, 2017 #2


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    Hello Rabu, :welcome:

    Apparently, ##i## and ##e^{i\pi/2}## are one and the same. Can you see why ?
    The calculator responds in a form ##|\alpha| \,e^{\operatorname{\, Arg}(\alpha)}## which I think is reasonable for complex numbers.
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