Intersect of U and U perpendicular; Orthogonality

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem in linear algebra concerning the intersection of a subspace \( U \) and its orthogonal complement \( U^\perp \) in \( \mathbb{R}^n \). The original poster is tasked with proving that if a vector \( u \) belongs to both \( U \) and \( U^\perp \), then \( u \) must be the zero vector.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the dot product being zero for vectors in \( U \) and \( U^\perp \). There are attempts to relate the properties of the dot product to the problem, including discussions about positive definiteness and the nature of orthogonality.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, raising questions about the properties of vectors and dot products. Some guidance has been offered regarding the significance of the dot product and its implications for the vectors involved, but there is no explicit consensus on how to formally demonstrate the required proof.

Contextual Notes

There are indications that participants are grappling with the definitions and properties of orthogonality and the nature of intersections in vector spaces. Some express uncertainty about how to express their reasoning mathematically, particularly in relation to the problem's requirements.

SeannyBoi71
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Homework Statement


Let U be a subspace of ℝn. Show that if u\inU\bigcapU\bot, then u=0.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I know that U\bot will be orthogonal to U, so any vector u in U dotted with any vector in U\bot will equal 0. But that does not necessarily mean that u = 0 so I must prove something else. I don't know where to include the intersect into all of this, we have never used that kind of thing before.
 
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SeannyBoi71 said:

Homework Statement


Let U be a subspace of ℝn. Show that if u\inU\bigcapU\bot, then u=0.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I know that U\bot will be orthogonal to U, so any vector u in U dotted with any vector in U\bot will equal 0. But that does not necessarily mean that u = 0 so I must prove something else. I don't know where to include the intersect into all of this, we have never used that kind of thing before.

Well, you've almost got it. Think about u^2 and remember that u is in Rn.
 
u2? u is a vector, so I'm guessing you're insisting I think about u dot u... I'm a little confused how that helps me here
 
well one way to look at u.u is to think of "the left u" as being in U, and the "right u" as being in U (which we can do since u is in the intersection).
 
Well if I do it that way then yes I will get the dot product is 0, because those two are orthogonal. I don't see how that makes u = 0, though. I'm missing something here
 
review the properties a dot product has to have...(positive definite is the property you're after)
 
SeannyBoi71 said:
u2? u is a vector, so I'm guessing you're insisting I think about u dot u... I'm a little confused how that helps me here

Yes, but also cancel out other cases using the orthogonal relation. Intuitively, if I rotate my u vector to make it orthogonal. What are the point(s) which are shared by both these vectors?
 
Deveno said:
review the properties a dot product has to have...(positive definite is the property you're after)

Just looked through my textbook and lecture notes and could not find any property like that, do you think you could explain it?

And now I know that u = 0 because it will be the only vector that is in U and U\bot because, well obviously, they are at a 90° angle. I just don't understand how I'm supposed to show it.

Actually come to think of it, can I use the formula cosθ = <b>x</b>\cdot<b>y</b>/||<b>x</b>|| ||<b>y</b>|| and plug in θ=pi/2, showing that u\cdotw = 0 , so that u must be equal to the 0 vector? This answer seems a bit trivial...
 
SeannyBoi71 said:
Just looked through my textbook and lecture notes and could not find any property like that, do you think you could explain it?

And now I know that u = 0 because it will be the only vector that is in U and U\bot because, well obviously, they are at a 90° angle. I just don't understand how I'm supposed to show it.

Actually come to think of it, can I use the formula cosθ = <b>x</b>\cdot<b>y</b>/||<b>x</b>|| ||<b>y</b>|| and plug in θ=pi/2, showing that u\cdotw = 0 , so that u must be equal to the 0 vector? This answer seems a bit trivial...

Deveno was probably alluding to the orthogonal inner product space. <x,y>=x.y. An inner product space must never be negative. Also, your method above is correct. Either, x OR y are the 0 vector. But in our example, that is u and u satisfy, u=0 and u=0.
If we write out u=[u1,...,un] and use the fact that u.u=0 and solve for each ui
 
  • #10
SeannyBoi71 said:
Just looked through my textbook and lecture notes and could not find any property like that, do you think you could explain it?

And now I know that u = 0 because it will be the only vector that is in U and U\bot because, well obviously, they are at a 90° angle. I just don't understand how I'm supposed to show it.

Actually come to think of it, can I use the formula cosθ = <b>x</b>\cdot<b>y</b>/||<b>x</b>|| ||<b>y</b>|| and plug in θ=pi/2, showing that u\cdotw = 0 , so that u must be equal to the 0 vector? This answer seems a bit trivial...

if we are talking about the standard dot product in Rn, then

if u = (u1,u2,...,un)

u.u = (u1)2 + (u2)2+...+(un)2

now, if u.u = 0, we have:

0 u.u = (u1)2 + (u2)2+...+(un)2

one hopes that you know that the square of a real number is non-negative.

the sum of two (or more) non-negative numbers is also ______?

therefore...

*********

you CANNOT conclude that just because u.w = 0 that one of u or w must be 0. for example, (0,-1).(1,0) = 0(1) + (-1)(0) = 0, but neither of these vectors is the 0-vector.

and, geometrically, saying that the 0 vector is at "a right angle" to something, just doesn't make any sense. how do you choose θ?
 
  • #11
Deveno said:
and, geometrically, saying that the 0 vector is at "a right angle" to something, just doesn't make any sense. how do you choose θ?

Didn't mean 0 vector is at a right angle. What I meant is that if two vectors are orthogonal (perpendicular), the only point they are going to have in common is 0 i.e. (0,0,0) in R3. And I chose θ to be pi/2 because that is a 90° angle and therefore the two vectors would be orthogonal... Is this logic not correct? I assumed this is what shaon0 was getting at. The thing is that I don't know how to "show" this, like the question asks. I can put it into words but not into equations.
 

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