Why is the following statement true?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

The only functions of p^mu that are left invariant under proper proper, orthochronous Lorentz transformations are p^2 = p_mu p^mu and for p^2<=0 also the sign of p^0.

I can see that they are invariant, but why are these the only invariants?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Invariant functions of the four-momenta

Loading...

Similar Threads for Invariant functions four |
---|

I Examples of invariant quantities |

Insights Rindler Motion in Special Relativity: Hyperbolic Trajectories - Comments |

I Invariance of force and mass |

A Difference Between Covariance and Diffeomorphism Invarience |

I Stress-energy tensor contribution to curvature |

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**