Inverse function for several variables

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
1 reply · 2K views
zetafunction
Messages
371
Reaction score
0
in one dimension one have that for a function [tex]f(x)[/tex] we can define another function [tex]g(x)[/tex] so [tex]f(g(x)=x[/tex]

my question or problem is the following, if i have a function of three variables [tex]f(x,y,z)[/tex] then i can define another function [tex]g(x,y,z)[/tex] so [tex]f(g(x,y,z))=Id[/tex]

for example for the function [tex]f(x,y,z)= xyz[/tex] what would be its inverse g??
 
Physics news on Phys.org
zetafunction said:
in one dimension one have that for a function [tex]f(x)[/tex] we can define another function [tex]g(x)[/tex] so [tex]f(g(x)=x[/tex]

my question or problem is the following, if i have a function of three variables [tex]f(x,y,z)[/tex] then i can define another function [tex]g(x,y,z)[/tex] so [tex]f(g(x,y,z))=Id[/tex]

for example for the function [tex]f(x,y,z)= xyz[/tex] what would be its inverse g??

It doesn't have an inverse because it is not 1-1 onto any point any point in its range. For example if d = abc then d also equals bac, cba etc.