Is 0.132 Hartrees/Bohr^2 Correctly Converted to J/m^2?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the conversion of a value from Hartrees per Bohr squared to joules per square meter, specifically whether the conversion of 0.132 Hartrees/Bohr^2 to J/m^2 has been performed correctly.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant requests confirmation of their conversion process from Hartrees/Bohr^2 to J/m^2.
  • Another participant notes the lack of information about the conversion steps, making it impossible to verify correctness.
  • A participant later provides their conversion method, detailing the multiplication by 4.36 x 10^(-18) J/Hartree and division by (5.29 x 10^(-11))^2 m^2/Bohr^2, resulting in an approximate value of 205.7 J/m^2.
  • Another participant expresses agreement with the conversion method presented.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no consensus on the correctness of the conversion, as only one participant has confirmed the method without providing a definitive verification of the final result.

Contextual Notes

The discussion lacks detailed assumptions regarding the constants used in the conversion and does not clarify if the values for Hartree to joules and Bohr to meters are universally accepted or context-dependent.

AxiomOfChoice
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Can someone please confirm whether I've done the following conversion correctly?

What does 0.132 Hartrees/Bohr^2 convert to in units of J/m^2?
 
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Not knowing what you did we can't say if you did it right.
 
Borek said:
Not knowing what you did we can't say if you did it right.

Ugh. You're right...I can't believe I forgot to post that.

I took 0.132 and multiplied by 4.36 x 10^(-18) J/Hartree, then divided by (5.29 x 10^(-11))^2 m^2/Bohr^2. This gives me something like 205.7 J/m^2.
 
Looks OK to me.
 

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