Is A Bounded by a Closed Ball?

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equivalence of boundedness of a subset A in a metric space M and its containment within a closed ball. The original poster seeks assistance specifically in demonstrating that if A is bounded, then it is contained in some closed ball.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of A being bounded and discuss how to correctly define a closed ball that encompasses all elements of A. There are attempts to clarify the definitions and the necessary conditions for the proof.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, providing guidance and clarifications. Some have suggested fixing a point and radius to demonstrate that all elements of A fall within a specific closed ball, while others are questioning the assumptions and definitions used in the proof.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on understanding the definitions of boundedness and closed balls, as well as the need to ensure that the proof correctly shows that a single closed ball can contain all elements of A, rather than individual balls for each element.

Hodgey8806
Messages
140
Reaction score
3
Prove that the following are equivalent: a) A is bounded, b) A is "in" a closed ball

Homework Statement


The full problem is:
Let M be a metric space an A\subseteqM be any subset. Prove that the following are equivalent:
a)A is bounded.
b)A is contained in some closed ball
c)A is contained in some open ball.

I only want help going from A to B, but maybe a little guidance from B to C or A to B--and I will attempt to prove the opposite way.

Homework Equations


Book definitions:
A is bounded if \existsR≥0 s.t. d(x,y)≤R \forall x,y\inA
If a is a nonempty bounded subset of M, the diameter of A is diam(A) = sup{d(x,y):x,y\inA}
For any x\inM and r>0, the closed ball of radius r around x is \overline{B}r(x)={y\inM:d(y,x)≤R}

The Attempt at a Solution


My first thoughts are:
(=>) A to B
Spse A is bounded.
Let R = diam(A)
\forallx1,x2\inA, d(x1,x2)≤R
Thus, \forallx\inA, \existsy\inM s.t. d(y,x)≤R
Let \overline{B}r(x)={y\inM:d(y,x)≤R} be the arbitrary union of y's.
Thus, \forallx\inA, x\in\overline{B}r(x)
Thus, A\subseteq\overline{B}r(x)
 
Physics news on Phys.org


You're studying Lee's book, aren't you? :smile:

Hodgey8806 said:
My first thoughts are:
(=>) A to B
Spse A is bounded.
Let R = diam(A)
\forallx1,x2\inA, d(x1,x2)≤R
Thus, \forallx\inA, \existsy\inM s.t. d(y,x)≤R
Let \overline{B}r(x)={y\inM:d(y,x)≤R} be the arbitrary union of y's.
Thus, \forallx\inA, x\in\overline{B}r(x)
Thus, A\subseteq\overline{B}r(x)

No, this can't be correct. You have shown that x\in B_r(x). But here you find for each x, a ball that contains x. So you have a ball for each x in A. You don't want that. You want only one ball that contains all the elements in A. So you want to find an B_r(x) such that y\in B_r(x) for all y in A.

Now, what if you just take r like you did before, and take x arbitrary (but fixed)??
 


Lol, I sure am! Brand new edition! I see what you are saying!
This time I will fix x (since by def of diameter, all x's will be inside that).

Spse A is bounded,
Let R = diam(A)
Let x\inA, \existsy\inM s.t. d(x,y)≤R
Let \bar{B}r(x) = {y\inM:d(y,x)≤R}
Thus \forallx\inA, x\in\bar{B}r(x) (since \forallx1,x2\inA, d(x1,x2)≤R)
Thus, A\subseteq\bar{B}r(x)
 


Hodgey8806 said:
Lol, I sure am! Brand new edition! I see what you are saying!
This time I will fix x (since by def of diameter, all x's will be inside that).

Spse A is bounded,
Let R = diam(A)
Let x\inA, \existsy\inM s.t. d(x,y)≤R
Let \bar{B}r(x) = {y\inM:d(y,x)≤R}
Thus \forallx\inA, x\in\bar{B}r(x) (since \forallx1,x2\inA, d(x1,x2)≤R)
Thus, A\subseteq\bar{B}r(x)

No, this is just the exact same proof.
What you want is to fix x_0 and R, and prove that
\forall y\in A:~y\in \overline{B}_R(x_0).
 


Hmm, I am having a bit of trouble seeing it.
To be sure, are you saying that the y's need to be in A or can they just be within M and outside of A? Does that make sense?
 


You want to prove that all elements in A are in a closed ball. So I pick a closed ball \overline{B}_R(x_0) (with our previous R and x_0).
Now, I need to prove that A is a subset of this closed ball.

So I need to prove that for all y in A holds that d(y,x_0)\leq R.
 


I believe that I understand it a bit better. I may have just been fudging up my material a bit.
For my personal clarity, I want y to be the point within M that satisfy the inequality. We will then label points in x as x1, etc.

Spse A is bounded
Let R = diam(A)
Let x0\inA
\existsy\inM s.t. d(x0,y)≤R
Let \bar{B}R(x0) = {y\inM : d(x0,y)≤R}
Let x1\inA,
since d(x0,x1)≤R, x1\in\bar{B}R(x0)
Thus, A\subseteq\bar{B}R(x0)

To me this makes sense, by fixing the ball of length R around x0, and because R is = diam (A), we know that if an element is in A then the distance between it and x0 must also be less or equal. Thus, it is within the "area" of the ball.

How's that?

Thank you so much for your help!
 


That's better.

Hodgey8806 said:
For my personal clarity, I want y to be the point within M that satisfy the inequality.

The point is that all points in M satisfy the inequality.

Spse A is bounded
Let R = diam(A)
Let x0\inA
This is ok.

\existsy\inM s.t. d(x0,y)≤R

This line is unnecessary.

Let \bar{B}R(x0) = {y\inM : d(x0,y)≤R}
Let x1\inA,
since d(x0,x1)≤R, x1\in\bar{B}R(x0)
Thus, A\subseteq\bar{B}R(x0)

This is ok.
 


Thank you very much! I see what I was doing wrong now. I love this site! lol
 

Similar threads

Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K