Is a Cauchy Sequence in a Metric Space Characterized by d(xn, xn+1) → 0?

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BSCowboy
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For a metric space (X,d), prove that a Cauchy sequence {xn} has the property d(xn-xn+1)--->0 as n--->\infty

In working this proof, is it really as simple as letting m=n+1?
 
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Yes, it really is that easy! The definition of "Cauchy sequence" is that [itex]d(x_n, x_m)[/itex] goes to 0 as m and n go to infinity. Since that is true, in particular, [itex]d(x_n, x_{n+1})[/itex] must go to 0 as n goes to infinity.

Notice, however, that the converse is not true. If [itex]d(x_n, x_{n+1})[/itex] goes to 0, it does NOT follow that [itex]d(x_n,x_m)[/itex] goes to 0.
 
Thanks for the input.

An example of a sequence in which [tex]d(x_n,x_{n+1})\rightarrow 0[/tex] , but [tex]d(x_n,x_m)\not\rightarrow 0[/tex] would be let [tex]x_n=ln(n)[/tex]
 
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I'll have to think about that! I was thinking of
[tex]a_n= \sum{i= 1}^n \frac{1}{i}= \frac{1}{n}+ \frac{2}{n}+ \frac{3}{n}+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ \frac{1}{n}[/tex]

Then [itex]|a_n- a_{n-1}= \frac{1}{n}[/itex] goes to 0 as n goes to infinity but the series is not Cauchy since it is well known that the harmonic series does not converge.

(After about 30 seconds of thought I see that ln(n)- ln(n+1)= ln(n/(n+1)) so, in fact, your seires is a variation of mine.