Is d((xn), (yn)) = lim d(xn, yn) a metric for Cauchy sequences in (X, d)?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around whether the defined distance function d((xn), (yn)) = lim d(xn, yn) can be considered a metric on the set of Cauchy sequences in a metric space (X, d). The scope includes theoretical exploration of metric properties and counterexamples related to Cauchy sequences.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes that the defined distance function satisfies the properties of a metric.
  • Another participant questions how to verify the property d(x,y)=0 if and only if x=y for the defined distance.
  • A participant suggests that the proposed distance fails this property, prompting the search for counterexamples.
  • Counterexamples are discussed, including sequences Sn = (0,1,0,1,...) and Tn = (0,0,0,0,...), with the claim that they yield a distance of zero while being distinct.
  • Another participant challenges the validity of the sequence Sn as a Cauchy sequence and proposes a different example using Sn = 1/n and Tn = (0,0,0,0,0) to illustrate the same point.
  • Further, a participant suggests modifying a Cauchy sequence by changing one term to create a new sequence that also results in a distance of zero while being distinct.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus; there are competing views regarding whether the defined distance function qualifies as a metric, with several counterexamples presented to challenge the initial claim.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the classification of certain sequences as Cauchy, and there are unresolved discussions about the implications of the distance function's properties.

Bachelier
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If (xn) and (yn) are two Cauchy sequences in a metric space (X, d), and we define
d((xn), (yn)) = lim d(xn, yn). Is this a metric on the set of all Cauchy sequences?

I'm thinking yes since all 3 properties work.
 
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How do you check if the d you defined on the set of Cauchy sequences has the property d(x,y)=0\Leftrightarrow x=y?
 
thanks fredrik. I thought about it for a minute. So you're telling me it fails?
 
Yes, that's what I'm saying. You should try to find an example of two different Cauchy sequences S1 and S2 such that d(S1,S2)=0.
 
I'm thinking of a counter example something like:

let Sn = (0,1,0,1,0,1...) with nth term being 0, and Tn = (0,0,0,0...)

d(Sn,Tn)=lim d(sn, yn)= lim d(0,0)=0 but Sn is different from Tn.

what do you think?
 
0,1,0,1,0,1,... isn't a Cauchy sequence (and also isn't at 0 "distance" from 0,0,0,...).
 
Fredrik said:
0,1,0,1,0,1,... isn't a Cauchy sequence (and also isn't at 0 "distance" from 0,0,0,...).

nice,

let Sn= 1/n
Tn = 0,0,0,0,0

d(Sn, Tn) = lim d(sn, tn) = 0 yet sn does not equal tn.
 
Yes, that works. Another possibility is to let S be any Cauchy sequence, then change just one of its terms, and call the new sequence T. Then we have d(S,T)=0 but S≠T. For example, 1,1,1,1... and 0,1,1,1,...
 
Last edited:
Thank you Fredrik. :)
 

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