Is angular SHM also related to UCM ?

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter ximath
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Angular Shm
Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
8 replies · 4K views
ximath
Messages
36
Reaction score
0
Hi all,

I have learned that linear SHM is just projection of UCM onto one axis. Is angular SHM also related to UCM ?

Moreover, I have also learned that theta = theta0 * sin(wt+P) where theta is angular displacement, theta0 is angular amplitude and P is phase constant. Where does this equation come from, or how can I derive it ?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Well, I somehow get the idea that they are related..

Thus instead, "how they are related" would be a better question actually.
 
I guess I need to be more precise. Assume we have a simple pendulum. We say that w = sqrt(g/L). Moreover, we say T = 2PI / w

It is quite a lot confusing for me to say period is equal to 2PI / w for a simple pendulum. First of all, if the angular displacement was 2PI and w was constant; then it would make sense to say T = 2PI / w . However, w is not constant and the angular displacement is not 2PI..

Well, if motion is analog to a uniform circular motion in which w is constant and always equal to sqrt(g/L); then it seems to be fine. But I'm not sure about that, too.

I seriously need some help here.
 
Don't confuse the angular frequency of the pendulum's simple harmonic motion (ω), with the angular speed of the pendulum itself.
 
Hmm, so as far as I understand, angular freq. is constant and angular speed (of pendulum) is variable.

saying w = sqrt(g/L) ; w is here angular freq. I guess.

Can we say that angular frequency is actually angular velocity of a UCM(not the pendulum) analog of our SHM in this case ?
 
ximath said:
Can we say that angular frequency is actually angular velocity of a UCM(not the pendulum) analog of our SHM in this case ?
I don't see why not.

[tex]x = x_0\sin \omega t[/tex]

is analogous to

[tex]\theta = \theta_0\sin \omega t[/tex]

(You'd have to have the radius of the circular motion represent θ0.)
 
Thanks a lot!

Now, I would like to prove that

[tex]w = \sqrt{\frac{g}{L}}[/tex]

I have tried:

[tex]Ftan = - mg \sin\theta[/tex]

(for simple pendulum)

and

[tex]a = g \sin\theta[/tex]

[tex]V = \int g\sin\theta dt[/tex] 0 to t

and

[tex]X = \int V dt[/tex] 0 to T/2.

Moreover;

[tex]X = \theta L[/tex]

Then; using [tex]w = \frac {2PI} {T}[/tex]

I would obtain a formula for w -- which hopefully would be equal to

[tex]w = \sqrt{\frac{g}{L}}[/tex]

So I guess now the problem is to calculate

[tex]V = \int g \sin\theta dt[/tex]

Well, you say that

[tex]\theta = \theta_0\sin \omega t[/tex]

but I don't really know why this equation is correct.
 
Last edited:
ximath said:
Now, I would like to prove that

[tex]w = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}[/tex]
That's for a mass on a spring, not a pendulum.

I have tried:

[tex]Ftan = - mg \sin\theta[/tex]

(for simple pendulum)
Why the tan?

Just: F = -mg sinθ

Then use a small angle approximation and Newton's 2nd law to set up (then solve) the differential equation.