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If you insist on your own idiosynchratic approach to trig identities, then I think the onus is on you to sort out the problems. I would encourage you to study this derivation. Let ##x = \cos y##, with ##y \in [0, \pi]## :Vividly said:Its completely different. Not sure what I am doing wrong. Unless arccos(x) ≠arcsec(1/x) like I stated at the top right of the board.
$$\arccos(x) = \arccos(\cos y) = y$$ $$arcsec(\frac 1 x) = arcsec(\sec y) = y$$ QED