Is f_{n}^{(2n)} always an integer for any natural number n?

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The discussion centers on whether the function f_{n}^{(2n)} is always an integer for any natural number n, where f_{n}(x) is defined as f_{n}(x) = (x^{n}(1-qx)^{n})/n!. It is established that f_{n} is a polynomial with the highest order term being qn(2n)!/n!. Upon taking 2n derivatives, all lower order terms vanish, confirming that the result is indeed an integer. The argument is supported through induction and the application of the binomial theorem, reinforcing the conclusion. Overall, the consensus is that f_{n}^{(2n)} is always an integer for any natural number n.
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Suppose fn:[0,p/q] → ℝ be a function defined by :
f_{n}(x) = \frac{x^{n}(1-qx)^{n}}{n!} where p,n and q are natural numbers .

Is that true that f_{n}^{(2n)} is always an integer for any natural number n .

Thanks .
 
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mahmoud2011 said:
Suppose fn:[0,p/q] → ℝ be a function defined by :
f_{n}(x) = \frac{x^{n}(1-qx)^{n}}{n!} where p,n and q are natural numbers .

Is that true that f_{n}^{(2n)} is always an integer for any natural number n .

Thanks .

The function is a polynomial with highest order term qnx2n/n! Taking 2n derivatives, the lower order terms all = 0. This highest term ends up as qn(2n)!/n!, so the answer is yes.
 
mathman said:
The function is a polynomial with highest order term qnx2n/n! Taking 2n derivatives, the lower order terms all = 0. This highest term ends up as qn(2n)!/n!, so the answer is yes.


ok that is was I tried to show but the step I was stuck in that if we differentiate x^n , ntimes we will have n! , so I don't know if I have proved it in the right way , I had done this by induction , where if n=1 , we will have (x^1)' = 1 = 1! , and hence we will assume that this true for any k , and then we will prove that this true for k+1 as following

\frac{d^{k+1}}{dx^{k+1}} x^{k+1} = \frac{d^{k}}{dx^{k}} ( \frac{d}{dx} x^{k+1} ) = \frac{d^{k}}{dx^{k}} (k+1)(x) = (k+1) \frac{d^{k}}{dx^{k}} x^{k} = (k+1).k! = (k+1)!

And hence we have the result is true . Afterthat I use the binomial theorem to expand the polynomial fn and differentiate each term 2n times all will be zero except the leading term and then our result follows . is these arguments are true
 
mahmoud2011 said:
ok that is was I tried to show but the step I was stuck in that if we differentiate x^n , ntimes we will have n! , so I don't know if I have proved it in the right way , I had done this by induction , where if n=1 , we will have (x^1)' = 1 = 1! , and hence we will assume that this true for any k , and then we will prove that this true for k+1 as following

\frac{d^{k+1}}{dx^{k+1}} x^{k+1} = \frac{d^{k}}{dx^{k}} ( \frac{d}{dx} x^{k+1} ) = \frac{d^{k}}{dx^{k}} (k+1)(x) = (k+1) \frac{d^{k}}{dx^{k}} x^{k} = (k+1).k! = (k+1)!

And hence we have the result is true . Afterthat I use the binomial theorem to expand the polynomial fn and differentiate each term 2n times all will be zero except the leading term and then our result follows . is these arguments are true
As far as I can tell you are saying the same thing I did.
 
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