mahmoud2011
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Suppose fn:[0,p/q] → ℝ be a function defined by :
f_{n}(x) = \frac{x^{n}(1-qx)^{n}}{n!} where p,n and q are natural numbers .
Is that true that f_{n}^{(2n)} is always an integer for any natural number n .
Thanks .
f_{n}(x) = \frac{x^{n}(1-qx)^{n}}{n!} where p,n and q are natural numbers .
Is that true that f_{n}^{(2n)} is always an integer for any natural number n .
Thanks .