Is f_{n}^{(2n)} always an integer for any natural number n?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around whether the expression f_{n}^{(2n)} is always an integer for any natural number n, where f_{n}(x) is defined as f_{n}(x) = \frac{x^{n}(1-qx)^{n}}{n!}. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and exploration of polynomial differentiation.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Exploratory

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants propose that f_{n}(x) is a polynomial with the highest order term being \frac{q_{n}x^{2n}}{n!}, and that taking 2n derivatives results in lower order terms equating to zero, leading to the conclusion that f_{n}^{(2n)} is an integer.
  • One participant describes their approach using induction to show that differentiating x^{n} n times results in n!, and they provide a proof structure for this claim.
  • Another participant mentions using the binomial theorem to expand the polynomial f_{n} and differentiate each term, asserting that only the leading term remains after differentiation.
  • There is a reiteration of agreement on the main argument presented, with one participant confirming that their reasoning aligns with another's.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the approach and reasoning regarding the differentiation of the polynomial and the resulting integer nature of f_{n}^{(2n)}. However, the discussion does not reach a consensus on the validity of the induction proof or the completeness of the arguments presented.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions regarding the properties of polynomials and differentiation are present, but they remain unexamined. The discussion does not resolve whether the induction proof is universally accepted or if there are additional conditions that may affect the outcome.

mahmoud2011
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Suppose fn:[0,p/q] → ℝ be a function defined by :
f_{n}(x) = \frac{x^{n}(1-qx)^{n}}{n!} where p,n and q are natural numbers .

Is that true that f_{n}^{(2n)} is always an integer for any natural number n .

Thanks .
 
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mahmoud2011 said:
Suppose fn:[0,p/q] → ℝ be a function defined by :
f_{n}(x) = \frac{x^{n}(1-qx)^{n}}{n!} where p,n and q are natural numbers .

Is that true that f_{n}^{(2n)} is always an integer for any natural number n .

Thanks .

The function is a polynomial with highest order term qnx2n/n! Taking 2n derivatives, the lower order terms all = 0. This highest term ends up as qn(2n)!/n!, so the answer is yes.
 
mathman said:
The function is a polynomial with highest order term qnx2n/n! Taking 2n derivatives, the lower order terms all = 0. This highest term ends up as qn(2n)!/n!, so the answer is yes.


ok that is was I tried to show but the step I was stuck in that if we differentiate x^n , ntimes we will have n! , so I don't know if I have proved it in the right way , I had done this by induction , where if n=1 , we will have (x^1)' = 1 = 1! , and hence we will assume that this true for any k , and then we will prove that this true for k+1 as following

\frac{d^{k+1}}{dx^{k+1}} x^{k+1} = \frac{d^{k}}{dx^{k}} ( \frac{d}{dx} x^{k+1} ) = \frac{d^{k}}{dx^{k}} (k+1)(x) = (k+1) \frac{d^{k}}{dx^{k}} x^{k} = (k+1).k! = (k+1)!

And hence we have the result is true . Afterthat I use the binomial theorem to expand the polynomial fn and differentiate each term 2n times all will be zero except the leading term and then our result follows . is these arguments are true
 
mahmoud2011 said:
ok that is was I tried to show but the step I was stuck in that if we differentiate x^n , ntimes we will have n! , so I don't know if I have proved it in the right way , I had done this by induction , where if n=1 , we will have (x^1)' = 1 = 1! , and hence we will assume that this true for any k , and then we will prove that this true for k+1 as following

\frac{d^{k+1}}{dx^{k+1}} x^{k+1} = \frac{d^{k}}{dx^{k}} ( \frac{d}{dx} x^{k+1} ) = \frac{d^{k}}{dx^{k}} (k+1)(x) = (k+1) \frac{d^{k}}{dx^{k}} x^{k} = (k+1).k! = (k+1)!

And hence we have the result is true . Afterthat I use the binomial theorem to expand the polynomial fn and differentiate each term 2n times all will be zero except the leading term and then our result follows . is these arguments are true
As far as I can tell you are saying the same thing I did.
 

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