Is integration of polynomial a bilinear for

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter jut24
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integration Polynomial
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of bilinear forms in the context of integrals of polynomial functions. Participants seek to understand how to prove that the integral of the product of two functions over a specified interval is bilinear, as well as the significance of the Kronecker delta in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asks how to prove that the integral from 0 to 1 of the product of two functions, f(x) and g(x), is bilinear.
  • Another participant suggests that to prove bilinearity, one must show that the integral satisfies the bilinear form definition involving linear combinations of functions.
  • A participant questions whether the bilinear form is non-degenerate and expresses uncertainty about how to demonstrate this property.
  • There is a request for clarification on the definition of "non-degenerate."

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants are exploring the proof of bilinearity and the concept of non-degeneracy, but there is no consensus on how to approach these proofs or definitions, indicating that multiple views and uncertainties remain.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not provided specific definitions or conditions for bilinearity or non-degeneracy, and the discussion lacks detailed mathematical steps or assumptions that may be necessary for a complete understanding.

jut24
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
Hello,

I am begin billinear form and need help with a proof

say you have an integral from 0 to 1 f(x)g(x) is it bilinear if show how do you prove that it is.
2) Can someone explain the significance of kroenecker delta.



Jut24
 
Physics news on Phys.org
jut24 said:
Hello,

I am begin billinear form and need help with a proof

say you have an integral from 0 to 1 f(x)g(x) is it bilinear if show how do you prove that it is.
Directly.
 
In other words, you prove that [itex]\int f(x)g(x)dx[/itex] is bilinear by showing that it satisfies the definition of "bilinear":

Is [itex]\int_0^1 (af(x)+ bg(x))h(x)dx= a\int_0^1 f(x)h(x)dx+ b\int_0^1 g(x)h(x)dx[/itex]?
Is [itex]\int_0^1 f(x)(ag(x)+ bh(x))dx= a\int_0^1 f(x)g(x)dx+ b\int_0^1 f(x)h(x)dx[/itex]?
 
on this topic:

this bilinear form is non-degenerate right?

I'm not exactly sure how to show that though...
 
Well, what is the definition of "non-degenerate"?
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 24 ·
Replies
24
Views
2K
Replies
48
Views
6K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
3K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
5K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
5K