Is it possible to build a magnetic monopole using permanent magnets?

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Building a magnetic monopole using permanent magnets is theoretically impossible due to the nature of magnetic fields. When wedge-shaped magnets are arranged with the same pole facing outward, the field lines still loop back, preventing the creation of a true monopole. Even if the wedges were perfectly sealed, the internal magnetic field would weaken externally, leading to a cancellation of poles. Attempts to create monopoles have been as futile as efforts to build perpetual motion machines, as fundamental physics principles dictate that such constructs cannot exist. The consensus is that any arrangement will ultimately result in a balance of magnetic poles, negating the possibility of a monopole.
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Has anyone attempted build a magnetic monopole?

If you took a bunch of wedge-shaped permanent magnets and assembled them into a ball such that the same pole for each magnet was pointing out radially, then you would have a magnetic monopole. (see attached).
 

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No. The field lines always circle back to the other end of each dipole.
 
That would only happen if there were gaps, right? What if you could theoretically seal the wedges together perfectly?
 
The more you try and constrain the field on the inside the weaker it becomes on the outside. A perfect "seal" would result in no magnetic field on the outside. In practice you will probably end up with a semi random pattern of weak poles of both types.
 
Many people have attempted, just as many people have attempted to build perpetual motion machines. But anyone versed in physics knows that this won't work.

You have as many south poles on the inside of your sphere as you have north poles on the outside, so they cancel out. The outside of the sphere can't "shield" the poles on the inside, and the fact that the outside is closer to you doesn't help since it all cancels out for a sphere. You can prove this to yourself if you know some multivariable calculus.
 
I'm working through something and want to make sure I understand the physics. In a system with three wave components at 120° phase separation, the total energy calculation depends on how we treat them: If coherent (add amplitudes first, then square): E = (A₁ + A₂ + A₃)² = 0 If independent (square each, then add): E = A₁² + A₂² + A₃² = 3/2 = constant In three-phase electrical systems, we treat the phases as independent — total power is sum of individual powers. In light interference...

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