Is mathematica wrong about this integral?

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter geoduck
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integral Mathematica
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the evaluation of a double integral involving the expression \(\int_1^\infty \int_1^\infty \frac{dxdy}{(x+y^2)^2}\). Participants explore the results obtained from Mathematica compared to their own calculations, leading to questions about convergence and the behavior of the integral under different transformations and substitutions.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant reports that Mathematica evaluates the integral to approximately 0.785398 for large upper limits, while they calculate it diverges using a substitution method.
  • Another participant questions the correctness of the Jacobian used in the transformation, suggesting that the limits of integration may be incorrect.
  • A different participant agrees that the area of integration is tricky and suggests evaluating the original iterated integral using simpler techniques.
  • One participant provides a step-by-step calculation of the integral, arriving at \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) and notes that Mathematica 9 gives the correct analytical answer.
  • A participant introduces a new integral involving \(\int_{-\infty}^\infty \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{dxdy}{1+(x+y^2)^2}\) and discusses convergence criteria, expressing uncertainty about the boundaries after transformation.
  • Concerns are raised about how to handle boundaries when transforming variables, particularly when considering limits approaching infinity.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the evaluation of the integral, with some asserting divergence and others providing calculations that suggest convergence. There is no consensus on the correct approach or the behavior of the integral under various transformations.

Contextual Notes

Participants note limitations in their transformations and boundary considerations, particularly regarding the behavior of the integrand at infinity and the implications of variable substitutions.

geoduck
Messages
257
Reaction score
2
When I type in this integral into Mathematica:

$$\int_1^\infty \int_1^\infty \frac{dxdy}{(x+y^2)^2}$$
using a large number like 1020 instead of ∞, Mathematica gives me 0.785398. No matter what large number I use, Mathematica always gives me around that value.

However, doing the integral by hand, I get it diverges. I make the substitution u=x+y^2 and v=y. The Jacobian of the transformation is 1, so I get:

$$\int_1^\infty \int_1^\infty \frac{dxdy}{(x+y^2)^2}=

\int_1^\infty dv \int_2^\infty \frac{du}{u^2}=(\infty-1)(\frac{1}{2})
$$

which is divergent.

Also, I noticed weird behavior by Mathematica too. If I change the exponent ##(x+y^2)^2## to a non-integer like ##(x+y^2)^{2.1}##, then the integral jumps from being zero or very large.

Does anyone know what's going on here?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
geoduck said:
The Jacobian of the transformation is 1
What happened to du/dy?
 
Your u-v limits of integration are off. The image of the transformation that you used is not a rectangle. Think about the images of the boundary curves x=1 and y=1 of the original region to deduce the boundary curves for the transformed region.

Alternatively, you might find it easier to just evaluate the original iterated integral using the "elementary" techniques of integration from single-variable calculus; i.e. how would you have evaluated $$\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{(x+a)^2}dx$$ last semester?
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
The Jacobian is du/dx dv/dy-du/dy dv/dx, and since dv/dx is zero I figured it doesn't matter what du/dy is, even if du/dy approaches infinity.
 
gopher_p said:
Your u-v limits of integration are off. The image of the transformation that you used is not a rectangle. Think about the images of the boundary curves x=1 and y=1 of the original region to deduce the boundary curves for the transformed region.

Alternatively, you might find it easier to just evaluate the original iterated integral using the "elementary" techniques of integration from single-variable calculus; i.e. how would you have evaluated $$\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{(x+a)^2}dx$$ last semester?

Thanks, I got the area wrong. That weird area makes the integral tricky, so your suggestion is better.
 
The integral can be done by just calculating the two succesive integrals. Start with
[tex]f(y)=\int_1^{\infty} \mathrm{d} x \frac{1}{(x+y^2)^2} = \left . -\frac{1}{(x+y^2)} \right|_{x=1}^{\infty}=\frac{1}{1+y^2}.[/tex]
The [itex]y[/itex] integral gives
[tex]\int_1^{\infty} \mathrm{d} y \frac{1}{1+y^2}=\left . \arctan y \right|_{y=1}^{\infty}=\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{\pi}{4}=\frac{\pi}{4}.[/tex]
Mathematica 9 gives the right answer analytically.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
vanhees71 said:
The integral can be done by just calculating the two succesive integrals. Start with
[tex]f(y)=\int_1^{\infty} \mathrm{d} x \frac{1}{(x+y^2)^2} = \left . -\frac{1}{(x+y^2)} \right|_{x=1}^{\infty}=\frac{1}{1+y^2}.[/tex]
The [itex]y[/itex] integral gives
[tex]\int_1^{\infty} \mathrm{d} y \frac{1}{1+y^2}=\left . \arctan y \right|_{y=1}^{\infty}=\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{\pi}{4}=\frac{\pi}{4}.[/tex]
Mathematica 9 gives the right answer analytically.

What if you have the integral

$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{dxdy}{1+(x+y^2)^2}$$

I'm not interested in the answer but more in how to tell if it converges or not. The denominator never goes to zero, and far away the integrand is zero. In single-variable calculus, I think it is sufficient that the integrand falls off faster than 1/x at infinity, and doesn't blow up at any finite value of x.

Is there a similar statement with multivariables? For some reason I thought the substitution u=(x+y2) and v=y would help me see it better, but the boundaries are kind of weird when you do this. In fact I don't really understand the new boundaries when x and y can range freely from -∞ to ∞ .

For example take the boundary y=∞, x=anything:

Then the corresponding boundary is: v=∞, u=anything+(∞)^2

I don't know how to handle anything+(∞)^2...is it equal to anything? If it is equal to anything, then the line y=∞, x=anything maps to the line v=∞, u=anything.

Also the boundary x=∞, y=anything is weird too:

then you have: u=x+y2=x+v^2, or the parabola u-v^2=∞. What type of boundary is this?

Or more simply, is the boundary of u and v also a box from -∞ to ∞?
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 27 ·
Replies
27
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
5K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K