Shing said:
hi guys, I just wonder that do we really need the law I?
since that law II, because of F=ma, you need a F such that there exist a a
The first law is a special case of the second law, the case where both sides of the equation are zero. Zero net force implies zero acceleration, and vice versa.
somehow that I heard that it is related to frames, but I didn't quite understand,
would anyone here be kind enough to elaborate a bit please?
If a frame of reference is accelerating, it will appear to someone inside that frame that objects accelerate for no apparent reason, which they will tend to explain by saying that a force has appeared.
For example, a rocket is coasting and the astronauts are floating inside. Then they turn on the engine, and the rocket accelerates. The astronauts' bodies move toward the floor, which they perceive to be identical to a force of gravity suddenly appearing.
Another example, the centrifugal "force" is a fictitious force invented to explain why objects in a rotating frame of reference move outward, like the water and clothes in a washing machine during the spin cycle.
Someone outside of that frame of reference, and observing the whole frame accerating, will be able to see that the acceleration of the frame and the inertia of the mass are sufficient to explain the effects, and it's not necessary to assume a new force.