Is the Airy Function Normalized?

[Irid]

Is the Airy function (of the first kind) normalized? If I take the integral

Ai(x) dx

on the entire axis, does it converge to 1? I can't find this property by googling around :(

 

[fzero]

Yes, see 9.10.11 at http://dlmf.nist.gov/9.10.

 

[Irid]

cool, thanks mate!