Is the differential in the momentum operator commutative?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the commutativity of the differential in the momentum operator within the context of quantum mechanics, particularly in relation to expectation values of wavefunctions. It explores the application of the momentum operator and the implications of moving functions into the differential operator.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether it is permissible to commute functions of the same variable into the momentum operator when the operator's differential is with respect to that variable.
  • Another participant raises a concern about a potential missing factor of two in the equation presented, indicating confusion about its origin.
  • A subsequent reply suggests that the observed factor of two may arise from an application of the chain rule in differentiation.
  • One participant asserts that the derivative operator in quantum mechanics shares the same commutation properties as that in multidimensional real calculus, specifically referencing the Leibniz property.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

The discussion contains multiple viewpoints regarding the handling of the momentum operator and the associated mathematical operations. There is no consensus on the specific factor introduced or the implications of the commutation properties.

Contextual Notes

Participants express uncertainty about the derivation of certain factors in the equations and the application of differentiation rules, indicating a reliance on specific mathematical assumptions that remain unresolved.

Zacarias Nason
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As it says; I was looking over some provided solutions to a problem set I was given and noticed that, in finding the expectation value for the momentum operator of a given wavefunction, the following (constants/irrelevant stuff taken out) happened in the integrand:

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\gamma(x)(\hat{p}(\gamma(x))dx = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\gamma(x)\frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\bigg(\gamma(x)\bigg)dx= \frac{\hbar}{i}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{\partial}{\partial(x)}\bigg(\gamma^2(x)\bigg)dx

Are we allowed to commute functions of the same dependency on variables into the momentum operator if the momentum operator's differential is w.r.t. that same variable or something? How does this work?
 
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Are you sure you don't miss a factor of two somewhere in the equation?
 
I just noticed that before you mentioned, and I can't figure out where it's coming from. There's now a factor of two in the denominator of a constant now outside the integral; I'm guessing some other operation was done that I didn't notice?

(To be clear, the factor of two wasn't there, and now it is after that function is moved into the differential operator(?). It wasn't there prior, so it had to have come from some operation.)

What you're left with, before the change I noted, is the integrand in this form:

\gamma(x) \frac{d}{dx}\bigg(\gamma(x)\bigg)dx
 
It's just the chain rule, consider
$$
\frac{\partial}{\partial x} \gamma^2(x) = \frac{\partial \gamma^2(x)}{\partial \gamma(x)} \frac{\partial \gamma(x)}{\partial x}.
$$
 
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Yes, a moderator can put the two in your OP. Yes, the derivative operator used in quantum mechanics has the same commutation properties as the derivative operator from multidimensional real calculus, namely the Leibniz property.
 
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Ah, thanks to both of you!
 

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