Is the function odd, even or neither?

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The function f(x) defined as 1 for -π < x < 0 and 0 for 0 < x < π is confirmed to be neither odd nor even due to its lack of symmetry about the x-axis or origin. It is characterized as a square wave. To find its Fourier series, the standard formulas for the coefficients A_n and B_n can be applied, with B_0 representing the constant term. An alternative approach involves expressing the function as f(x) = 1/2 + g(x), where g(x) is an odd function, simplifying calculations. The discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding definitions in mathematical contexts.
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The function f(x) 1, -pi < x < 0

0, 0 < x < pi

now after sketching the function i believe i am correct in saying it is neither symmetrical about the x-axis or the origin and therefore is neither odd nor even?

It is a square wave?

Am i correct? Also how should i now go about finding its Fourier series?

Thankyou
 
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Assuming you mean f(x)= , then, yes, it is neither even nor odd.

You could find its Fourier series by using the usual formulas:
A_n= \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^0 sin(nx) dx[/itex]<br /> and<br /> B_n= \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^0 cos(nx)dx[/itex]&lt;br /&gt; where A&lt;sub&gt;n&lt;/sub&gt; and B&lt;sub&gt;n&lt;/sub&gt; are the coefficients of sin(nx) and cos(nx) respectively for n&amp;gt; 0. &lt;br /&gt; B_0= \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^0 dx= \frac{1}{2}&lt;br /&gt; is the constant term.&lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; Or you could write f(x)= 1/2 + g(x) where g(x)= 1/2 for -\pi \le x\le 0 and g(x)= -1/2 for 0&amp;amp;lt; x \le \pi. g(x) is an odd function so the calculations are little simpler.
 
I'm going to be more abrupt than the lovely mentors here. What is the bloody definition? Sorry, cabellos, but I'm truly fed up with the number of questions which are answerable with 'look at the definition'.
 
"Lovely", moi? Oh, how sweet of you!

Actually, I think the first sentence of just about every response should be "look up the definition"!
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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