Is the Proof for the Nearest Point in a Cone Valid?

Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the validity of a proof concerning the nearest point in a cone defined by a set of vectors. Participants explore the implications of certain conditions on the distance between a point outside the cone and its projection onto the cone, questioning the assumptions and conclusions drawn in the proof.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses skepticism about the proof's validity, particularly regarding the assumption that if \( d = u - f \), then \( g_{i}^\top d \leq 0 \) for all \( i \).
  • Another participant points out that the negation of the statement being proved is not correctly identified, suggesting that this could affect the proof's structure.
  • Concerns are raised about whether the condition \( g_{i}^\top d \leq 0 \) uniquely determines the point \( u \) within the cone, with some arguing that there may be closer points that also lie in the cone.
  • A participant challenges the justification for choosing points in the cone and suggests providing a counterexample to clarify the argument.
  • Another participant agrees that there may not always exist a point \( (u - t_i \hat{g}_i) \) in \( K \) satisfying \( \hat{g}^\top d = t_i < 0 \), which raises questions about the assumptions made in the proof.
  • One participant defends the proof's logic by reiterating the properties of the cone and suggesting that perturbations of points within the cone should maintain certain conditions.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the validity of the proof, with some supporting its logic while others raise significant concerns about the assumptions and implications. There is no consensus on the proof's correctness or the interpretation of the conditions involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the proof relies on specific assumptions about the cone's properties and the behavior of points within it. There are unresolved questions regarding the uniqueness of the nearest point and the implications of perturbations on points in the cone.

kaosAD
Messages
33
Reaction score
0
I encountered a problem in a book with a proof given. But I am a bit skeptic about it. I hope someone can help shed some light.

Let [tex]\{g_{i}\}[/tex] be a set of vectors and imagine a cone defined as [tex]K = \left\{v \,\bigg|\, v =-\sum_{i}\lambda_{i}g_{i}, \textup{ where }\lambda_{i}\geq 0 \ , \forall i \right\}[/tex].

Let [tex]f \notin K[/tex] and let [tex]u \in K[/tex] be the closest point to [tex]f[/tex]. Obviously [tex]u[/tex] is the projected point of [tex]f[/tex] onto [tex]K[/tex]. The objective is to prove that if [tex]d = u - f[/tex], then [tex]g_{i}^\top d \leq 0, \, \forall i[/tex]. (Note that [tex]d \neq 0[/tex].)

The proof given is by contradiction: Suppose that is not true, that is, [tex]\hat{g}_{i}^\top d = s_{i}[/tex] for some scalar [tex]s_{i} > 0, \, \forall i[/tex], where [tex]\hat{g}_{i}= g_{i}/\|g_{i}\|[/tex]. It is not difficult to see that [tex](u-s_{i}\hat{g}_{i}) \in K, \, \forall i[/tex], i.e., it remains in the cone even by small or large perturbation on the vector [tex]u[/tex]. Now, we shall show the perturbed point has smaller distance. Indeed this is the case since for any [tex]i[/tex],

[tex] \begin{align*}<br /> \|(u-s_{i}\hat{g}_{i})-f \|^{2} &= \|(u-f)-s_{i}\hat{g}_{i}\|^{2}= \|(u-f)\|^{2}-2 s_{i}\hat{g}_{i}^\top (u-f)+s_{i}^{2}\|\hat{g}_{i}\|^{2} \\ <br /> &= \|d\|-2s_{i}\hat{g}_{i}^\top d+s_{i}^{2} \\ <br /> &= \|d\|-2s_{i}^{2}+s_{i}^{2} \\ <br /> &= \|d\|-s_{i}^{2}\leq \|d\|, <br /> \end{align*}[/tex]

which contradicts with the assumption that [tex]u[/tex] is the nearest point in [tex]K[/tex] to [tex]f[/tex] -- done!.

All looks good, however if I let [tex]\hat{g}_{i}^\top d = t_{i}[/tex] for which the scalar [tex]t_{i}< 0,\, \forall i[/tex] but sufficiently close to 0 such that [tex](u-t_{i}\hat{g}_{i}) \in K[/tex] for any [tex]i[/tex], then using the same derivation I arrive at [tex]\|(u-t_{i}\hat{g}_{i})-f \|^{2}= \|d\|-t_{i}^{2}\leq \|d\|[/tex] too! This means it can contradict even for the case [tex]g_{i}^\top d < 0[/tex]. I now question the validity of this proof. I welcome your comment.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Firstly, the negation of (for all i) is (there exists an i).

Secondly nothing states that the condition of g_i^Td<=0 for all i implies that this determines u uniquely. Thus given such a u with this condition, there may be points closer and lying in the cone. And if there isn't a closer point you won't be able to find things sufficiently close to zero.
 
Last edited:
matt grime said:
Firstly, the negation of (for all i) is (there exists an i).

You mean in the definition of K? But you can't change that.

matt grime said:
Secondly nothing states that the condition of g_i^Td<=0 for all i implies that this determines u uniquely. Thus given such a u with this condition, there may be points closer and lying in the cone. And if there isn't a closer point you won't be able to find things sufficiently close to zero.

Yes, I agree with you that nothing states about the implication but
since K is a cone which is closed and convex, [tex]u \in K[/tex] exists and must be a unique point.
 
Last edited:
No, I do not mean the definition of K. You are doing a proof by contradiction, so what is the negation of the statement you're trying to prove? It is not what you wrote.

And you still haven't justified that in your 'second argument' that you can actually choose things as you claim you can. Just write down a simple example and work out where you go wrong. (For example there is nothing to stop you picking 1-d things, for example the cone {x : x=>1, x in R} and f=0, u=1)
 
Right you have the point there:there might not be any point [tex](u - t_i \hat{g}_i) \in K[/tex] such that it satisfies [tex]\hat{g}^\top d = t_i < 0[/tex]. This means the book cannot also claim that the point [tex](u - s_i \hat{g}_i) \in K[/tex] satisfyng [tex]\hat{g}^\top d = s_i > 0[/tex] always exist.
 
Last edited:
It can because of the definition of K. (I admit I've not thought to carefully about this or your attempted counter example, but it is clear that what the line of argument is approximately: that all things are greater than or equal to zero, so if something is not strictly negative, then it is positive, and, say, 1/2 of a positive number is positive again, so in K as well. You really ought to work through an example to see what is going on. It is quite simple, I believe: if z is in K, then so is z+r_ig_i for any positive z_i by the definition of K.)
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
Replies
46
Views
7K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 25 ·
Replies
25
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K