Is the Sturm Liouville Operator Symmetric?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of the Sturm-Liouville operator, specifically whether it is symmetric with respect to a defined scalar product. The operator is defined as Lf(x) = f''(x) + q(x)*f(x), where q(x) is a continuous real function on the interval [0,1]. The functions considered are twice continuously differentiable and satisfy specific boundary conditions.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the requirement to show symmetry by comparing the scalar products (Lf(x), g(x)) and (f(x), Lg(x)). There is discussion about the implications of boundary conditions on the functions involved, particularly regarding their derivatives at the endpoints of the interval.

Discussion Status

The conversation includes attempts to derive expressions for the scalar products and to apply integration by parts. Some participants provide clarifications on the boundary conditions, while others express uncertainty about the clarity of the presented reasoning.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of specific boundary conditions for the functions involved, which may influence the calculations and assumptions made during the discussion.

Dassinia
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Hello, I'm solving the previous exams and I have a problem with an exercise:

Homework Statement



q(x) a real function defined in [0,1] and continuous
L a sturm Liouville operator :
Lf(x)=f''(x)+q(x)*f(x)

f ∈ C²([0,1]) with f(0)=0 and f'(1)=0.

Is L a symetric operator relative to the scalar product defined as
(f,g)=∫f(x)*g(x) dx from 0 to 1 ?

I just want to be sure I have to show that (Lf(x),Lg(x))=(Lg(x),Lf(x)) ( or not equal) ?

Thanks
 
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Dassinia said:
Hello, I'm solving the previous exams and I have a problem with an exercise:

Homework Statement



q(x) a real function defined in [0,1] and continuous
L a sturm Liouville operator :
Lf(x)=f''(x)+q(x)*f(x)

f ∈ C²([0,1]) with f(0)=0 and f'(1)=0.

Is L a symetric operator relative to the scalar product defined as
(f,g)=∫f(x)*g(x) dx from 0 to 1 ?

I just want to be sure I have to show that (Lf(x),Lg(x))=(Lg(x),Lf(x)) ( or not equal) ?

Thanks

No, you want to show (Lf(x),g(x))=(f(x),Lg(x)).
 
Hello,
So if I want to prove that (Lf(x),g(x))=(f(x),Lg(x))
The operator is applied on functions which properties are f ∈ C²([0,1]) with f(0)=0 and f'(1)=0.
So when I calculate
(Lf(x),g(x))
I can use the fact that g'(1)=g'(0)=0 ?
Thanks
 
Dassinia said:
Hello,
So if I want to prove that (Lf(x),g(x))=(f(x),Lg(x))
The operator is applied on functions which properties are f ∈ C²([0,1]) with f(0)=0 and f'(1)=0.
So when I calculate
(Lf(x),g(x))
I can use the fact that g'(1)=g'(0)=0 ?
Thanks

I think you have g'(1)=g(0)=0. That's a little different.
 
Hello,
I'm sorry it's f'(0)=f'(1)=0
So if I want to show that it is symmetric I have to calculate this part
∫f''(x)g(x) from 0 to 1
By integration
=[ f(x)*f'(x) ] - ∫g'(x)f'(x) dx
= - ∫g'(x)f'(x) dx
=-[g'(x)*f(x)] + ∫f(x)*g''(x)dx
=∫f(x)*g''(x)dx

So if ∫f''(x)g(x)=∫f(x)*g''(x)dx
We can rewrite
(Lf(x),g(x))= ∫f''(x)g(x) + ∫g(x)f(x)g(x) dx
=∫f(x)*g''(x)dx + ∫g(x)f(x)g(x) dx
=(f(x),Lg(x)) ?
 
Dassinia said:
Hello,
I'm sorry it's f'(0)=f'(1)=0
So if I want to show that it is symmetric I have to calculate this part
∫f''(x)g(x) from 0 to 1
By integration
=[ f(x)*f'(x) ] - ∫g'(x)f'(x) dx
= - ∫g'(x)f'(x) dx
=-[g'(x)*f(x)] + ∫f(x)*g''(x)dx
=∫f(x)*g''(x)dx

So if ∫f''(x)g(x)=∫f(x)*g''(x)dx
We can rewrite
(Lf(x),g(x))= ∫f''(x)g(x) + ∫g(x)f(x)g(x) dx
=∫f(x)*g''(x)dx + ∫g(x)f(x)g(x) dx
=(f(x),Lg(x)) ?

Well, yes it's integration by parts. I don't think that's a very clear presentation though.
 

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