Is the zero vector always in the span of any set of vectors?

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SUMMARY

The zero vector is always included in the span of any set of vectors, as confirmed by the discussion. The span of vectors v and u, denoted as span(v, u), represents all linear combinations of these vectors. Since any vector can be multiplied by zero, the zero vector is guaranteed to be part of the span, regardless of the dimensional space (R², R³, Rⁿ). This conclusion clarifies the confusion stemming from inadequate explanations in the referenced textbook.

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It's not so much a homework problem as it is something I was wondering. Our book is horrible, and does not explicitly state that the zero vector is always in the span of two vectors. If I am understanding things right:

if v and u are vectors
span(v, u)
is the collection of all points that can be reached via a linear combination of v and u. My reasoning is that if v is equal to u, then span{v,u} = span{v} = span{u}, which is essentially a line. However, it seems to me that in any space, R^2, R^3,...,R^n, the span{} of any n vectors will always go through the origin and thus, the zero vector will always be in that collection. Is that accurate?
 
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Yes. Notice that if S is a set and v \in S, then 0 \cdot v = 0 \in \mathrm{Span}(S).
 
jgens said:
Yes. Notice that if S is a set and v \in S, then 0 \cdot v = 0 \in \mathrm{Span}(S).

Yup, since the weights of the linear combination can be zero. Thanks, I just wanted clarification due to the books grey area. I know it seems obvious, but you would have to read this book to understand the confusion :smile:
 

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