Is There a Trick to Simplify Taylor Series Expansion?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around simplifying the Taylor series expansion for the function ln(sec x + tan x). Participants are exploring various methods to derive the series more efficiently, particularly through differentiation and series expansion techniques.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to differentiate the function multiple times but finds it cumbersome and seeks alternative methods. Some participants suggest using series expansions for sine, cosine, and logarithmic functions to simplify the process. Others question the effectiveness of differentiation versus series expansion for obtaining higher-order terms.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively discussing different approaches, including the use of series expansions and the chain rule for differentiation. There is acknowledgment of the complexity involved in obtaining higher-order terms, and some guidance has been offered regarding the application of series, though no consensus has been reached on the best method.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of confusion regarding the application of the chain rule and the correct notation in derivatives. Some participants are also addressing potential errors in previous posts, which highlights the collaborative nature of the discussion.

silverfury
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Homework Statement
I have tried differentiating many times in order to find a simpler diffrential eq to solve it further but didn’t have any luck there. Pls help
Relevant Equations
To prove:
ln(sec x + tan x) = x + x^3/6 + x^5/24 ......
I tried diffrentiating upto certain higher orders but didn’t find any way.. is there a trick or a transformation involved to make this task less hectic? Pls help
 
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I have only the idea of using three series and calculate the first terms.
We have ##\log(\sec x +\tan x)= \log (1+\sin x)-\log(1+(\cos x -1))## and the series
\begin{align*}
\sin x &= x - \dfrac{x^3}{3!} + \dfrac{x^5}{5!} - \dfrac{x^7}{7!} \pm \ldots\\
\cos x -1 &= - \dfrac{x^2}{2!} + \dfrac{x^4}{4!} -\dfrac{x^6}{6!} \pm \ldots \\
\log (1+x)&= x -\dfrac{x^2}{2}+\dfrac{x^3}{3}-\dfrac{x^4}{4} \pm \ldots
\end{align*}
This works only for a few series elements but seems to be less work than differentiating. However, if you need the correct formula with all series members, things are really ugly.
 
silverfury said:
Problem Statement: I have tried differentiating many times in order to find a simpler diffrential eq to solve it further but didn’t have any luck there. Pls help
Relevant Equations: To prove:
ln(sec x + tan x) = x + x^3/6 + x^5/24 ...

I tried diffrentiating upto certain higher orders but didn’t find any way.. is there a trick or a transformation involved to make this task less hectic? Pls help

You can say that [tex]1 + \sin x = 1 + x - \tfrac16x^3 + \tfrac1{120}x^5 + O(x^7)\\<br /> \sec x = 1 + \tfrac12 x^2 + \tfrac5{24}x^4 + O(x^6) \\<br /> \log(1 + x) = x - \tfrac12x^2 + \tfrac13 x^3 - \tfrac14 x^4 + \tfrac15x^5 + O(x^6).[/tex] Now multiply [itex]\sec x[/itex] by [itex]1 + \sin x[/itex] retaining all terms up to and including [itex]O(x^5)[/itex]. The constant term is 1, so you can drop this and substitute the remaining terms directly into the log series and expand, retaining only terms up to and including [itex]O(x^5)[/itex].

You can see that getting higher order terms out of this involves a lot of algebra, so differentiation might actually be easier.
 
Suppose ##y=ln(f(x))##

Chain rule, ##y'=1f(x)⋅f'(x)##
y'=1sec(x)+tan(x)⋅(sec(x)+tan(x))'
y'=1sec(x)+tan(x)⋅(sec(x)tan(x)+sec^2(x))
y'=1sec(x)+tan(x)⋅sec(x)(sec(x)+tan(x))
y'=sec(x)

Is this any help?


Wrong. Thanks @SammyS
 
Last edited:
I think you have forgotten the division signs: ##\dfrac{1}{f(x)}## and ##\dfrac{1}{\sec x +\tan x}.##
 
jim mcnamara said:
Suppose ##y=ln(f(x))##

Chain rule, ##y'=1f(x)⋅f'(x)##
$$y'=1sec(x)+tan(x)⋅(sec(x)+tan(x))'$$
$$y'=1sec(x)+tan(x)⋅(sec(x)tan(x)+sec^2(x))$$
$$y'=1sec(x)+tan(x)⋅sec(x)(sec(x)+tan(x))$$
$$y'=sec(x)$$

Is this any help?
To be more explicit regarding what @fresh_42 states in the previous post, the above should be:
Chain rule, ##y'=\dfrac{1}{f(x)}\cdot f'(x)##

##y'=\dfrac{1} {\sec(x)+\tan(x)}\cdot \dfrac{d}{dx}(\sec(x)+\tan(x))##​
...
##y'=\sec(x) ##​
 
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Thanks for the correction.
 

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