Is there an error in this problem?

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The discussion centers on problem 32-15 from "Calculus" by Michael Spivak, specifically focusing on the inequality involving the derivatives of two functions, φ₁ and φ₂. The user identifies a discrepancy between the original inequality and their derived form, suggesting that the correct relation should be the opposite of what is presented in the textbook. The user concludes that their derived inequality, which is based on the properties of integrals, leads to a valid conclusion that the original relation should indeed be greater than zero.

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madsmh
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I am currently working on problem 32-15 in Calculus by Spivak, and in question (b)

in the bottom line there is a relation
[itex][\phi_1'(b)\phi_2(b) -\phi_1'(a)\phi_2(a)]+[\phi_1(b)\phi_2'(b)-\phi_1(a)\phi_2'(a)]>0[/itex]

But I can only get it to work out if

[itex][\phi_1'(b)\phi_2(b) -\phi_1'(a)\phi_2(a)]-[\phi_1(b)\phi_2'(b)-\phi_1(a)\phi_2'(a)]>0[/itex]

as this would make sense since

[itex]\int_a^b \phi_1''(x)\phi_2(x)-\phi_2''(x)\phi_1(x) + \phi_1'(x)\phi_2'(x)-\phi_1'(x)\phi_2'(x) dx = \int_a^b (\phi_1'(x)\phi_2(x))' dx - \int_a^b (\phi_2'(x)\phi_1(x))' dx[/itex]

which would make it natural to conclude that the relation above is >0, since the above integral has been shown to be >0.

.. Mads
 
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I hard to guess what's going on here.

What is the problem as stated in the textbook, and where are you stuck?
 

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