Is Zee's Notation for Electromagnetism Standard?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the notation used in A. Zee's quantum field theory, particularly in relation to Maxwell's Lagrangian and the vector potential. Participants are exploring the conventions of notation in electromagnetism and quantum field theory.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning the standardization of Zee's notation, particularly regarding the representation of derivatives and the vector potential. Some are seeking references to better understand the Lagrangian formalism in electrodynamics.

Discussion Status

There are multiple interpretations of Zee's notation being explored, with some participants suggesting that it may be standard but acknowledging that it is a convention. References to other texts have been provided to assist in understanding the concepts discussed.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note the potential confusion arising from different conventions in notation, such as the "East Coast Metric" and the implications for the representation of the vector potential and derivatives.

jdstokes
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In A. Zee's quantum field theory in a nutshell he assumes familiarity with Maxwell's lagrangian [itex]\mathcal{L} = -\frac{1}{4}F_{\mu\nu}F^{\mu\nu}[/itex] where [itex]F_{\mu\nu} = \partial_\mu A_\nu - \partial_\nu A_\mu[/itex] with A the vector potential.

Although I've seen the magnetic vector potential, I've never seen the lagrangian formalism in either electrodynamics or lagrangian/hamiltonian dynamics courses.

Could anyone point me in the direction of a suitable reference to allow me to familiarise myself with this?

Thanks
 
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Srednicki's QFT book explains this. You can download it for free from his web site.
 
Try chapter 12 in Griffiths, for a brief introduction into the field tensor and the four-vector potential. For an introduction to the lagrangian formalism in electrodynamics, try Goldstein's book on classical mechanics.
 
I find Zee's notation a little bit confusing here. It seems like he is writing [itex]\partial_\mu[/itex] to mean [itex](\partial_t,\nabla)[/itex] and at the same time writing e.g. [itex]A_\mu = (V,-\mathbf{A})[/itex] and thus [itex]A^\mu = (V,\mathbf{A})[/itex]. Is this standard or am I misunderstanding his notation?

This is the only way I could get Maxwell's equations out of

[itex]F^{\mu\nu} = \partial^\mu A^\nu - \partial^\nu A^\mu[/itex].

[itex]F^{0i} = \partial^0 A^i - \partial^i A^0 = -E^i[/itex]. etc
 
Last edited:
After checking in another QFT text by Ryder it seems like this is indeed standard notation.
 
jdstokes said:
I find Zee's notation a little bit confusing here. It seems like he is writing [itex]\partial_\mu[/itex] to mean [itex](\partial_t,\nabla)[/itex] and at the same time writing e.g. [itex]A_\mu = (V,-\mathbf{A})[/itex] and thus [itex]A^\mu = (V,\mathbf{A})[/itex]. Is this standard or am I misunderstanding his notation?

This is the only way I could get Maxwell's equations out of

[itex]F^{\mu\nu} = \partial^\mu A^\nu - \partial^\nu A^\mu[/itex].

[itex]F^{0i} = \partial^0 A^i - \partial^i A^0 = -E^i[/itex]. etc

yes, for [itex]\partial_\mu[/itex] the sign is opposite to the other vectors. That's because
[tex]\partial_\mu \equiv \frac{\partial}{\partial x^\mu}[/tex]
 
never mind I'll make my own topic
 
jdstokes said:
... familiarity with Maxwell's lagrangian [itex]\mathcal{L} = -\frac{1}{4}F_{\mu\nu}F^{\mu\nu}[/itex] where [itex]F_{\mu\nu} = \partial_\mu A_\nu - \partial_\nu A_\mu[/itex] with A the vector potential.

Could anyone point me in the direction of a suitable reference to allow me to familiarise myself with this?
The ultimate E&M reference: J. D. Jackson, "Classical Electrodynamics", 3rd ed., Chap. 12, Sec. 7.
R. Shankar, "Principles of Quantum Mechanics", 2nd ed., Chap. 18, Sec. 5, Subsec. "Field Quantization".
(more advanced) Peskin & Shroeder, "An Introduction to Quantum Field Theory", Chap. 15.
 
jdstokes said:
I find Zee's notation a little bit confusing here. It seems like he is writing [itex]\partial_\mu[/itex] to mean [itex](\partial_t,\nabla)[/itex] and at the same time writing e.g. [itex]A_\mu = (V,-\mathbf{A})[/itex] and thus [itex]A^\mu = (V,\mathbf{A})[/itex]. Is this standard or am I misunderstanding his notation?
It is perhaps standard, but it is certainly just a convention. For example, in the "East Coast Metric" (η=diag(-1,+1,+1,+1)), that could be changed to [itex]A_\mu = (-V,\mathbf{A})[/itex], and for implicit metric: [itex]\partial_\mu=\partial^\mu=(\nabla,ic\partial_t)[/itex], [itex]A_\mu=A^\mu=(\mathbf{A},icV)[/itex].
 

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