Firstly, my apologies for my naivety in Physics. Mathematics is not my native language. I have an idea that I'm not sure how to express and unaware of it's validity. I would appreciate it if somebody better equipped could consider this proposition. I've heard that time's apparent onward march is anomalous, different to the function of every other known field. I was thinking that if time did feature polarity, which it may, is it possible that the distance that a particle could travel in both directions in time may be proportional to Planck's constant over 2∏? I'm wondering if an oscillation, or even super position, within this time range into the past and into the future could be considered as the present - blurry at the planck scale and perhaps accounting for quantum phenomenon involving time. Following this line of thought, could the quantum wave be involved somehow? I'm dreadfully sorry if this made no sense at all. I'm trying to understand the relationships between the interesting bits of the universe.