Kepler's planetary motion and inverse square law

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between Kepler's laws of planetary motion and the inverse square law of gravitation. Participants explore whether Kepler's laws can be derived from Newton's gravitational law and the implications of these relationships in the context of central force fields.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the relationship between the inverse square law and Kepler's third law, suggesting a derivation connection.
  • Another participant asserts that all of Kepler's laws can be derived from the inverse square law of gravitation.
  • A different viewpoint suggests that Kepler's second law is applicable to any central force field, not just the inverse square law, citing a mathematical expression related to central forces.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the applicability of Kepler's laws to various force fields, indicating that the discussion remains unresolved with multiple competing perspectives.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions regarding the definitions of central force fields and the specific conditions under which Kepler's laws apply are not fully explored, leaving certain mathematical steps and implications unresolved.

shounakbhatta
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Hello,

The inverse square law of Newton's gravitational force, is it somehow related to each other?

I mean to say P^2 is directly prop.a^3. Is it from the third law that the derivation of inverse sq.law of G=M.m/R2 is derived?

Thanks.
 
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You can derive all of Kepler's laws from the inverse square law of gravitation.
 
shounakbhatta said:
Is it from [Kepler's] third law that the derivation of inverse sq.law of G=M.m/R2 is derived?

Basically, yes. This old thread has a couple of links to files that have more details. See posts #9 and #10.

https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=399797
 
But I think the second law is not only for inverse square rule, in fact it holds true for any centre field force([itex]\vec{F}= f(r)\vec{r}[/itex]) because [itex]\dot{S}= \frac{1}{2}r^2 \frac{dw}{dt}[/itex] where [itex]r^2 \frac{dw}{dt}[/itex] is consevative in any central force field.
 

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