Lagrange's mean value theorem problem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around applying Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem (LMVT) to a specific problem involving the definition of a function and its derivatives. Participants explore the conditions under which LMVT can be applied and the implications of those conditions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of LMVT and the need to define a function h(x) that meets certain criteria. There are attempts to clarify the relationship between different values of c and the requirements for applying Rolle's Theorem.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing insights and corrections regarding their approaches. Some have identified a potential function h(x) that could simplify the problem, while others express confusion about previous errors and the implications of their definitions.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of uncertainty regarding the values of f(0) and f(1), as well as the conditions necessary for applying Rolle's Theorem effectively. Participants are navigating through these constraints as they refine their understanding of the problem.

utkarsh009
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Homework Statement


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Homework Equations



Lagrange's mean value theorem

The Attempt at a Solution


Applying LMVT,
There exists c belonging to (0,1) which satisfies f'(c) = f(1)-f(0)/1 = -f(0)
But this gets me nowhere close to the options... :(
 
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edit
Sorry the post I made contained an error. I'm not quite sure how to fix it yet but basically what I think you need to do is find a function h(x) and define it in terms of some linear combination of f(x), f(0), f(1) so that it equals zero at the end points and then apply Rolle's Theorem.
 
Thanks mate! Solved it... But how did you think of that function h(x)??
 
o_O said:
edit
Sorry the post I made contained an error. I'm not quite sure how to fix it yet but basically what I think you need to do is find a function h(x) and define it in terms of some linear combination of f(x), f(0), f(1) so that it equals zero at the end points and then apply Rolle's Theorem.
But your h(x) had solved the problem. What was the error??
 
Hey sorry I edited my previous post. What I wrote doesn't work because the two c's might be different. The c that works for the equation you posted might be a different c from the one I used for h(x).

When trying to define an h(x) we want it to be 0 at the end points so we can apply Rolle's Theorem. It looks like Rolle's Theorem is needed because of the way the question is set up (i.e it looks like some derivative is equal to 0). And we want f(0) to disappear from the equation for the derivative because we don't know its value.
 
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Actually a relatively simple function works lol. Sorry for all this confusion:
<br /> h(x) = xf(x)
There exists a c in (0, 1) such that <br /> 0 = cf&#039;(c) + f(c)

by Rolle's Theorem.
 
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o_O said:
Actually a relatively simple function works lol. Sorry for all this confusion:
<br /> h(x) = xf(x)
There exists a c in (0, 1) such that <br /> 0 = cf&#039;(c) + f(c)

by Rolle's Theorem.
Yah... Was just thinking the same and was about to post it... :P
 

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