Laminar flow in a pipe (Poiseuille flow)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around deriving Poiseuille's equation in the context of laminar flow through a pipe, specifically using an infinitesimal volume element in cylindrical coordinates. The original poster is focused on understanding the viscous forces acting on the element and how to apply Taylor's Theorem to evaluate derivatives at a consistent point.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore different methods for deriving the net viscous force on the infinitesimal element, discussing the application of Taylor's Theorem and the definition of derivatives. Questions arise regarding the validity of approximations used in different methods.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the derivation process with some participants providing alternative methods and discussing the implications of approximations. The conversation reflects a productive exchange of ideas without reaching a definitive conclusion.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of calculus and fluid dynamics, particularly in relation to the assumptions made about the behavior of viscous forces in the flow. The discussion highlights the nuances of mathematical reasoning in deriving physical equations.

rmc240
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Homework Statement



I am trying to derive Poiseuille's equation using an infinitesimal volume element of the pipe in cylindrical coordinates as seen below. I am using x for the flow direction, u for the velocity in the flow direction, and μ for the viscosity constant.

https://www.physicsforums.com/attachment.php?attachmentid=69754&stc=1&d=1400000671

Homework Equations



I know the viscous stress varies radially by τ = μ(du/dr)

This means that the viscous force on one face of my infinitesimal volume element is μ(du/dr)r r δ[itex]\phi[/itex] δx

And I think the viscous force on the opposite face is μ(du/dr)r+δr (r+δr) δ[itex]\phi[/itex] δx

Now I want to subtract one of these forces from the other to get the net viscous force on the infinitesimal element.

The Attempt at a Solution



When I attempt to do this, I am left with two radial derivatives evaluated at different points. I get:

μ ( (du/dr)r+δr r δ[itex]\phi[/itex] δx + (du/dr)r+δr δr δ[itex]\phi[/itex] δx - (du/dr)r r δ[itex]\phi[/itex] δx)

Now I'm not exactly sure how to use Taylor's Theorem to get all of the derivatives evaluated at the same point and combine terms. Thanks.
 
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You're very close to having the right answer. There are two methods you can use.

Method 1:
μ(du/dr)r+δr (r+δr) δϕ δx-μ(du/dr)r r δϕ δx=[itex]μ[(r+δr)(\frac{du}{dr})_{r+δr}-r(\frac{du}{dr})_{r}]δϕ δx=μ\frac{[(r+δr)(\frac{du}{dr})_{r+δr}-r(\frac{du}{dr})_{r}]}{δr}δrδϕ δx[/itex]

This is equal to
[tex]μ\frac{d}{dr}\left(r\frac{du}{dr}\right)δrδϕ δx[/tex]

Method 2:

μ ( (du/dr)r+δr r δϕ δx + (du/dr)r+δr δr δϕ δx - (du/dr)r r δϕ δx)=[itex]μ(r(\frac{du}{dr})_{r+δr}-r(\frac{du}{dr})_{r}+(\frac{du}{dr})_{r+δr})δr δϕ δx[/itex]
This is equal to:[tex]μ(r\frac{(\frac{du}{dr})_{r+δr}-(\frac{du}{dr})_{r}}{δr})δr δϕ δx+μ((\frac{du}{dr})_{r}+\frac{d^2u}{dr^2}δr)δr δϕ δx=μ(r\frac{d^2u}{dr^2})δr δϕ δx+μ(\frac{du}{dr})δr δϕ δx+μ\frac{d^2u}{dr^2}(δr)^2 δϕ δx[/tex]
This is equal to:
[tex]μ(r\frac{d^2u}{dr^2}+\frac{du}{dr})δr δϕ δx+μ\frac{d^2u}{dr^2}(δr)^2 δϕ δx[/tex]
The last term has 4 differentials in it compared to only 3 from the previous term, so it can be neglected. We are left with:

[tex]μ(r\frac{d^2u}{dr^2}+\frac{du}{dr})δr δϕ δx[/tex]

Chet
 
Ah, I see thank you. I should have recognized the definition of a derivative.

My only question is that in method 1 it doesn't look like you are making any approximations because you're just applying the definition of a derivative, while in method 2 it looks like you use an approximation because you neglect the term with 4 differentials. But you end up with the same result both times. Why is this the case?
 
Last edited:
rmc240 said:
Ah, I see thank you. I should have recognized the definition of a derivative.

My only question is that in method 1 it doesn't look like you are making any approximations because you're just applying the definition of a derivative, while in method 2 it looks like you use an approximation because you neglect the term with 4 differentials. But you end up with the same result both times. Why is this the case?

They're just different ways of doing the approximation, but the final result has to come out the same either way.
Chet
 
Last edited:

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