Laplace in Cyl. form: one step I'm not sure about

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the conversion of Laplace's equation from Cartesian to cylindrical coordinates. The original poster expresses uncertainty about a specific step in their solution process, particularly regarding the application of the chain rule and the validity of their manipulations involving partial derivatives.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to simplify their expression by eliminating terms they consider unimportant and questions the correctness of their application of the chain rule in relation to partial derivatives. They express confusion about the implications of their findings on the nature of partial differential equations.

Discussion Status

Participants have provided feedback on the original poster's approach, specifically addressing the inaccuracies in their differentiation of variables. There is an ongoing exploration of the implications of these inaccuracies and how they relate to the broader context of partial differential equations.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the relationship between the variables in cylindrical coordinates complicates the differentiation process, emphasizing the need to consider dependencies between variables when applying the chain rule.

kostoglotov
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I have completed the exercise, but I did something weird in one step to make it work, and I'd like to know more about what I did...or if what I did was at all valid.

1. Homework Statement


Show that Laplace's equation

\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial y^2}+\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial z^2}=0

when converted to cylindrical coordinates gives

\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial r^2}+\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}+\frac{1}{r^2}\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial \theta^2}+\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial z^2}=0

Homework Equations



obviously

x = r\cos{\theta}
y = r\sin{\theta}
z = z

The Attempt at a Solution



It was a long exercise, so I'll skip ahead to just before the step I'm asking about

r^2\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial r^2}+\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial \theta^2}+\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial z^2} =<br /> \frac{\partial^2u}{\partial x^2}(r^2\cos^2{\theta}+r^2\sin^2{\theta})+\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial y^2}(r^2\cos^2{\theta}+r^2\sin^2{\theta})+\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}(-r\cos{\theta})+\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}(-r\sin{\theta})+\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial z^2}

r^2\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial r^2}+\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial \theta^2} =<br /> r^2\left(\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial y^2}\right)+\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}(-r\cos{\theta})+\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}(-r\sin{\theta})

Now, I got rid of the second partial of u to z since it just takes up space, and is not interesting right now. What I am interested in is the last two terms of the RHS. By the chain rule,

\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}(-r\cos{\theta})+\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}(-r\sin{\theta}) = \frac{\partial u}{\partial r}\frac{\partial r}{\partial x}(-r\cos{\theta})+\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}\frac{\partial r}{\partial y}(-r\sin{\theta})

\frac{\partial r}{\partial x} = \frac{1}{\cos{\theta}} \ and \ \frac{\partial r}{\partial y} = \frac{1}{\sin{\theta}}

So

\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}(-r\cos{\theta})+\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}(-r\sin{\theta}) = -r\left(\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}+\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}\right)

Now...here's where I need more insight, I have an inkling that the following is NOT right

\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}(-r\cos{\theta})+\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}(-r\sin{\theta}) = -2r\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}

My intuition that this was wrong came from a few places. First off, it did not look like it would give the solution I was being directed to find...but that isn't sufficient for real understanding.

My understanding is that when using partial derivatives, especially when using them with the chain rule, one is finding rates of change in given directions, thus it's kind of like a vector (or basis vector - I haven't studied linear algebra yet) situation...and one cannot simply add basis vectors to each other...so I opted for this

\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}(-r\cos{\theta})+\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}(-r\sin{\theta}) = -r\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}

and of course, by reinserting the second partial for u on z and rearranging one can show the very thing the problem asked us to show.

However, it bothers me that I have

-r\left(\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}+\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}\right) = -r\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}

What is going on here?

Like I said, I've completed the exercise, but I feel like my insight is lacking.
 
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Your partial derivatives ##\partial r / \partial x## and ##\partial r/\partial y## are wrong. You cannot simply solve for ##r## from ##x = r\cos\theta## and differentiate wrt x, ##\theta## depends on x and y! You need to differentiate the full expression which defines r in terms of x and y, i.e., ##r^2 =x^2+y^2##.
 
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Orodruin said:
Your partial derivatives ##\partial r / \partial x## and ##\partial r/\partial y## are wrong. You cannot simply solve for ##r## from ##x = r\cos\theta## and differentiate wrt x, ##\theta## depends on x and y! You need to differentiate the full expression which defines r in terms of x and y, i.e., ##r^2 =x^2+y^2##.

So even though we can consider theta as being constant when we partial differentiate \frac{\partial x}{\partial r} or \frac{\partial y}{\partial r}, I need to understand that \frac{\partial r}{\partial x} is not simply the reciprocal of \frac{\partial x}{\partial r}. So is this what makes PDE's so difficult? Because this then suggests to me that only ordinary differential fractions are separable...I haven't done anything beyond ODE's yet. Is the ability to flip and separate the differential fraction what they mean by homogenous?
 
kostoglotov said:
Because this then suggests to me that only ordinary differential fractions are separable...I haven't done anything beyond ODE's yet.

If by this you mean that ##dy/dx = 1## implies ##dy = dx##, then yes, this is not generally true when you have several variables. If you have several ##y## and several ##x##, you will have
$$
dy^i = \frac{\partial y^i}{\partial x^j} dx^j
$$
(here using Einstein summation convention, the ##j## is a summation index). When we talk about a separable PDE, we talk about a PDE which can be broken down into a set of ODEs by using separation of variables, e.g., ##u(x,t) = X(x)T(t)##.
 
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Basically the chain rule with partial derivatives is abit different, it is ##\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}=\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}\frac{\partial x}{\partial r}+\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial r}## and similar for theta. Using this expression you can easily see that ##-r\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}## gives the desired result.

This is from a theorem in calculus regarding the partial derivation of a composition of function of 2 variables with 2 other functions of 2 variables each (just as the chain rule with ordinary derivatives is from the composition of a function of 1 variable with another function of 1 variable).

Here our function of two variables is ##u(x,y)## and we take the composition of this function with the functions ##x=x(r,\theta)=rcos\theta## and ##y=y(r,\theta)=rsin\theta##

So basically your mistake is when you say that ##\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}\frac{\partial r}{\partial x}##, this is not correct, the correct is ##\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial u}{\partial r}\frac{\partial r}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial u}{\partial \theta}\frac{\partial \theta}{\partial x}## with ##r^2=x^2+y^2## and ##\theta=arctan(y/x)##.
 
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