I have finally finished reading the proof of the Banach-Tarski paradox. I think the proof was the standard versoin I see around the internet, with the the group G of rotations phi and psi and so on. I was wondering how the proof fails as a result of lebesgue measure on the set?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Lebesgue measure and the Banch-Tarski Paradox

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