Let [ ] be a countable number of finite sets. Prove [ ]

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves demonstrating that the union of a countable number of finite sets is countable. Participants are discussing the reasoning behind a specific function used to establish a one-to-one correspondence between the union and the natural numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are exploring the logic behind the choice of a particular function for mapping elements of the union to natural numbers. There are questions about the equivalence of different formulations of this function and the implications of counting elements from multiple sets.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the mapping process and the rationale for the function's structure. There is ongoing clarification regarding the equivalence of different expressions and the nature of the sets involved.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of potential confusion regarding the terminology used, specifically the reference to "finite union" in the context of countably infinite sets, which may affect the understanding of the problem setup.

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Homework Statement


Problem:
Let A_1 , A_2 , . . . be a countable number of finite sets. Prove that the union S = ⋃_i A_i is countable.

Solution:
Included in the TheProblemAndSolution.jpg file.

Homework Equations


Set-theoretic algebra.

The Attempt at a Solution


Unless I missed something, it seems that I understand everything about that solution except why the author chose to use ##f(b_{ij}) = m_1 + m_2 + . . . + m_{i - 1} + j##.

Could someone please explain to me why that specific function was constructed? I get that the author is trying to show that there is a one-to-one correspondence between the set S and the set of natural numbers, but I don't understand that particular sum was chosen. What's the logic behind the decision?

Any input would be GREATLY appreciated!
 
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s3a said:

Homework Statement


Problem:
Let A_1 , A_2 , . . . be a countable number of finite sets. Prove that the union S = ⋃_i A_i is countable.

Solution:
Included in the TheProblemAndSolution.jpg file.

Homework Equations


Set-theoretic algebra.

The Attempt at a Solution


Unless I missed something, it seems that I understand everything about that solution except why the author chose to use ##f(b_{ij}) = m_1 + m_2 + . . . + m_{i - 1} + j##.

Could someone please explain to me why that specific function was constructed? I get that the author is trying to show that there is a one-to-one correspondence between the set S and the set of natural numbers, but I don't understand that particular sum was chosen. What's the logic behind the decision?

Any input would be GREATLY appreciated!

You didn't link you jpg correctly. So I can't see it. But it appears the author is just writing a function that counts total number of elements in the finite union of all of the sets before the i'th set and then includes j elements of the i'th set.
 
Oops!

Here is the image I meant to attach (just in case you misinterpreted the situation, which I don't think you did, but just in case).

Is ##f(b_{ij}) = m_1 + m_2 + . . . + m_{i - 1} + m_i## equivalent to ##f(b_{ij}) = m_1 + m_2 + . . . + m_{i - 1} + j##? I don't know if it's because it's late as I write this, but I still don't see why the authors chose the specific letters they did.

Also you said "finite union", was that a mistake? I say this, because there can be a countably infinite amount of sets (where each set has a finite number of elements).
 

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s3a said:
Oops!

Here is the image I meant to attach (just in case you misinterpreted the situation, which I don't think you did, but just in case).

Is ##f(b_{ij}) = m_1 + m_2 + . . . + m_{i - 1} + m_i## equivalent to ##f(b_{ij}) = m_1 + m_2 + . . . + m_{i - 1} + j##? I don't know if it's because it's late as I write this, but I still don't see why the authors chose the specific letters they did.

Also you said "finite union", was that a mistake? I say this, because there can be a countably infinite amount of sets (where each set has a finite number of elements).

The author is just counting the elements in ##S## to get a 1-1 correspondence with the natural numbers. If there are three elements in ##B_1## then assign them to 1,2,3. Then if there are four elements in ##B_2## assign them to 4,5,6,7. Etc, etc. That formula just expresses that way of counting. So, for example, for the second element of ##B_2##, ##b_{22}=3+2=5##.
 
So, would that be a yes to the question

"Is ##f(b_{ij}) = m_1 + m_2 + . . . + m_{i - 1} + m_i## equivalent to ##f(b_{ij}) = m_1 + m_2 + . . . + m_{i - 1} + j##?"

?
 
s3a said:
So, would that be a yes to the question

"Is ##f(b_{ij}) = m_1 + m_2 + . . . + m_{i - 1} + m_i## equivalent to ##f(b_{ij}) = m_1 + m_2 + . . . + m_{i - 1} + j##?"

?
No. Each member of {bij} must be mapped to a different number. Suppose you have mapped B1 to the first m1, numbers (1 to m1), B2 to the next m2 numbers (m1+1 to m1+m2) and so forth up to Bi-1. We are now in the process of mapping Bi. The first of Bi is mapped to ##m_1 + m_2 + . . . + m_{i - 1} +1##, the second to ##m_1 + m_2 + . . . + m_{i - 1} + 2##, etc.
 

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