Limit of limits of linear combinations of indicator functions

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the convergence properties of a sequence of functions \( f_n \) defined on \( \mathbb{R}^n \) that converge almost everywhere to a function \( f \). Each function \( f_i \) is expressed as a linear combination of indicator functions of rectangles, also known as "step" functions. The main inquiry is whether the limit function \( f \) can also be represented as a limit of step functions. The conclusion indicates that while \( \int |f - f_n| \rightarrow 0 \), challenges arise in establishing pointwise convergence due to potential issues with other metrics, particularly on sets of measure zero.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of measure theory, particularly concepts of almost everywhere convergence.
  • Familiarity with indicator functions and their role in defining step functions.
  • Knowledge of integration in \( \mathbb{R}^n \) and convergence of integrals.
  • Basic principles of functional analysis, especially regarding limits of sequences of functions.
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the properties of almost everywhere convergence in measure theory.
  • Study the representation of functions as limits of step functions in functional analysis.
  • Explore the implications of pointwise convergence versus convergence in measure.
  • Examine the role of measure-zero sets in convergence properties of functions.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, particularly those specializing in analysis and measure theory, as well as students seeking to deepen their understanding of convergence properties of functions in \( \mathbb{R}^n \).

Unconscious
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I have a sequence of functions ##0\leq f_1\leq f_2\leq ... \leq f_n \leq ...##, each one defined in ##\mathbb{R}^n## with values in ##\mathbb{R}##. I have also that ##f_n\uparrow f##.
Every ##f_i## is the limit (almost everywhere) of "step" functions, that is a linear combination of rectangles indicator functions.

Is there a way to prove that also ##f## is the limit of "step" functions?
 
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Unconscious said:
Is there a way to prove that also is the limit of "step" functions?
In what sense? You certainly will have \int \vert f-f_{n} \vert \rightarrow 0 but I think you will have problems with other metrics .
 
I mean pointwise convergence, optionally except on a measure-zero set of ##\mathbb{R}^n##.
 

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