Limit of sequence n^p/e^n as n approaches infinity

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the limit of the sequence (n^p)/(e^n) as n approaches infinity, where p is a positive constant. Participants are exploring the mathematical derivation of this limit and the reasoning behind it.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants attempt to derive the limit using L'Hôpital's rule and discuss the implications of differentiating the numerator and denominator multiple times. Others question the complexity of the approach and suggest simpler interpretations.

Discussion Status

The conversation includes various interpretations of the limit and the use of L'Hôpital's rule. While some participants express confidence in their reasoning, others seek clarification on the validity of their approaches. There is no explicit consensus on the best method, but productive discussions are ongoing.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the method of using L'Hôpital's rule may only apply clearly when p is a positive integer. There is also mention of the need to consider the limit of expressions involving logarithms for more general cases.

alex_dc1
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Simple question just as the title says, but I can't remember or derive the solution for the life of me. I know that the answer is 0. I know why the answer is 0. But I need to know the mathematical derivation of the solution, and that's the part that I can't remember. So, to reiterate, how do you find:

lim (n^p)/(e^n) as n→∞, where p>0
 
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Wait, I think I just figured it out, but I want to make sure this makes sense:

(n^p)/(e^n) =

n/e^(n/p) * n/e^(n/p) * n/e^(n/p) * n/e^(n/p)...

where:

lim n/e^(n/p) as n→∞ is (by L'hopital's rule) equal to:

*edit for the correct derivative:
lim 1/[ (1/p) * e^(n/p) ] n →∞ is equal to 0, therefore:

n/e^(n/p) * n/e^(n/p) * n/e^(n/p) * n/e^(n/p)... is equal to 0 * 0 * 0 * 0... therefore,

lim (n^p)/(e^n) as n→∞ is equal to 0

Does that make sense, or am I just making crap up?
 
Last edited:
Um, p-iterations of L'Hospital's rule would be much clearer, I think. The limit is certainly 0, but I think you are making it more complicated than it needs to be.
 
I've never heard that term before. Would that basically state that the p-th derivative of n^p equals (p!)?
 
alex_dc1 said:
Wait, I think I just figured it out, but I want to make sure this makes sense:

(n^p)/(e^n) =

n/e^(n/p) * n/e^(n/p) * n/e^(n/p) * n/e^(n/p)...


where:

lim n/e^(n/p) as n→∞ is (by L'hopital's rule) equal to:

*edit for the correct derivative:
lim 1/[ (1/p) * e^(n/p) ] n →∞ is equal to 0, therefore:

n/e^(n/p) * n/e^(n/p) * n/e^(n/p) * n/e^(n/p)... is equal to 0 * 0 * 0 * 0... therefore,

lim (n^p)/(e^n) as n→∞ is equal to 0

Does that make sense, or am I just making crap up?

That reminds me of the "proof" that the derivative of x^2 is just "x". Since x^n is just x added to itself n times, x^x is x added to itself x times: x^x= (x+ x+ x+ ...+ x) and therefore the derivative is (x^x)'= (1+ 1+ 1+ ...+ 1) x times which is equal to x.

That's wrong because you cannot treat doing an operation a variable number of times the same as doing it a constant number of times.

lineintegral is suggesting that you use L'Hopital's rule p times (that's what "p iteration" means). Each time you differentiate the numerator you get a lower power of nwhile the denominator is always e^n. After differentiating p times you have just p! in the numerator and e^n in the denominator. Now take the limit as n goes to infinity.

Strictly speaking, that only works for p a positive integer. For the more general case, write n^p as e^(ln(n^p)= e^(p ln(n)) so that n^p/e^n= e^(pln(n)- n) and look at the limit of pln(n)- n as n goes to infinity.
 

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