Limits Confusion: What Is Wrong?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the evaluation of limits, particularly in cases where the limit appears to take the form of 'infinity/infinity'. Participants explore the validity of applying l'Hôpital's rule and the implications of rewriting functions to analyze limits. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and technical explanations related to limits in calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants argue that rewriting the function to show an 'infinity/infinity' form does not imply that the limit does not exist, and l'Hôpital's rule can be applied to find a finite answer.
  • Others suggest that re-engineering the limit expression can aid in understanding, implying that the original limit does not diverge.
  • One participant challenges the application of the quotient rule, stating that it is invalid if the limits involved are not finite real numbers.
  • There is a question raised about whether a specific participant, CompuChip, is wrong in their reasoning regarding the limits.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus; there are competing views on the validity of applying l'Hôpital's rule and the interpretation of the limit's behavior.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved assumptions regarding the conditions under which limits can be evaluated, particularly concerning the finiteness of the limits involved in the quotient rule.

zorro
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What is wrong?
 
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Nothing's wrong, the fact that you can rewrite the function such that the limit becomes of the form 'infinity/infinity' when evaluated 'naively' does not mean that the limit suddenly no longer exists. In fact, this is one of the cases where we are allowed to apply l'hospital's rule, and we then often find a finite answer.

What you could also do, of course, is rewrite it as
[tex]\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1 + x^n}{1 + x^n} - \frac{2 x^n}{1 + x^n}[/tex]
and then divide numerator and denominator of the second term by xn (or you can still do that first and then do the same rewriting trick, it just looks a little different).
 
I hope the OP sees that nothing in his limit diverges so would it need to be <reingeneered> ??
 
dextercioby said:
I hope the OP sees that nothing in his limit diverges so would it need to be <reingeneered> ??

Re-engineering helps to understand things better.

CompuChip said:
Nothing's wrong, the fact that you can rewrite the function such that the limit becomes of the form 'infinity/infinity' when evaluated 'naively' does not mean that the limit suddenly no longer exists. In fact, this is one of the cases where we are allowed to apply l'hospital's rule, and we then often find a finite answer.

What you could also do, of course, is rewrite it as
[tex]\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1 + x^n}{1 + x^n} - \frac{2 x^n}{1 + x^n}[/tex]
and then divide numerator and denominator of the second term by xn (or you can still do that first and then do the same rewriting trick, it just looks a little different).

Thanks!
 
[tex]1=\lim_{n\to\infty}(1)=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n}{n}\text{'}=\text{'}\frac{\infty}{\infty}[/tex]

You are applying the quotient rule where it is invalid to do so. The quotient rule says that IF [tex]\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n=a[/tex] and [tex]\lim_{n\to\infty}b_n=b[/tex], where a and b are real (FINITE!) numbers with b non-zero, THEN [tex]\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{b_n}=\frac{a}{b}[/tex].

In this case a and b are not (finite) real numbers.
 
Is CompuChip wrong?
 

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