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## Homework Statement

If Lim f(x) and Lim g(x) both exist and are equal

x→a x→a then Lim[f(x)g(x)]=1

x→a

## Homework Equations

No relevant equations are required in this problem. To determine whether the statement is true or false [/B]

## The Attempt at a Solution

The statement is false but the reason behind it is quite unclear to me. Is it because when the limit approaches a from left and right the limits are -∞ and +∞?? Would be very helpful if anyone of you could explain it.