Linearizing a system using a taylor expansion

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The discussion focuses on linearizing the system operator involving the exponential function e^f(t) using a Taylor series expansion. Participants clarify that the task is to find the Taylor expansion of e^x, which leads to the conclusion that the linear approximation can be derived from the first two terms of the series. The linearization is expressed as e^{f(0)} + e^{f(0)}.f´(0).x, emphasizing the need to know the function f(x) for accurate linearization. The conversation highlights that without a defined function, the linear approximation simplifies to 1 + f(x) for small values of f(x). Overall, the thread underscores the importance of understanding the function involved in the linearization process.
Giuseppe
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Homework Statement


Linearize the system operator illustrated below by applying a Taylor series expansion.

f(t) ----> e^f(t) -----> g(t)


Homework Equations



I only find the general form of a taylor series relevant.

g(x)= sum (0,infinity) of [f^n*(a)*(x-a)^n]/n!
The system is centered at 0, so a=0.


The Attempt at a Solution



My question is that I'm not sure if I'm looking into the problem too closely, but is it just asking to find the taylor expansion of e^x? I know in that case the answer should be

g(t)= sum(0,infinity) t^n/n!
 
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My guess

e^x=1+x/1!+1/2! x^2 +1/3! x^3 + a/4 x^4!+...

A linear approximation is given by the first two terms
e^x f(x)=[approx]=(1+x) f(x)
 
christianjb is correct: a "linearization" is just a linear approximation. If you already have the Taylor's series for the function at a given point, you can just take the first two (linear) terms to get a linear approximation. Of course, that is exactly the same as finding the tangent line at the point.

I'm not clear on exactly what your function is. You seem to be writing
ef(x). How you would linearize that, or how you would find its Taylor series depends on what f(x) is! If you just want ef(x) as a linear function of f(x), that would be 1+ f(x).
(christianjb thinks you mean ex*f(x).)
 
I agree with what you're saying. That's why I didn't think the problem was as hard as it I was thinking. No function is explicitly defined.
 
The first derivative of e^{f(x)} is e^{f(x)}.f´(x), so your linearization would be

e^{f(0)} + e^{f(0)}.f´(0).x
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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