Undergrad Lorentzian line shape integration

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on the integration of the Lorentzian line shape, specifically the integral of |a(ω)|², which is expressed as E(1/(i(ω-ω0) - γ) - 1/(i(ω+ω0) + γ). Participants clarify that the integral should start from 0 rather than -∞, due to the excitation occurring only at t = 0, as indicated by the Heaviside step function. There is also a noted typo in the expression for α(ω), where E0 should replace E. The conversation emphasizes understanding the convergence and behavior of the integral at infinity, leading to insights about the integral's limits and the nature of the Lorentzian function.
Josh1079
Messages
45
Reaction score
0
Hi,
I know this might be a bit dum but I'm currently stuck with this integral.
In this link: http://www.pci.tu-bs.de/aggericke/PC4e/Kap_III/Linienbreite.htm

I know he's doing the right thing, but I really don't understand the integral of a(omega).
How come it is E(1/(i(ω-ω0) -γ) - 1/(i(ω+ω0) +γ))?
Does it even converge?

Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Note it's not ##a(\omega)## that is integrated, but ##|a(\omega)|^2##. A Lorentzian is essentially of the form ##1\over 1+x^2## and normalizable.

Unless you wonder how the (complex) ##a(\omega)## itself is found. That is with the ##E(t)## at the top of the section. Write it out and see.
 
Note that:
(1) There is a typo in the expression for ##\alpha(\omega)## - it should be ##E_{0}## instead of ##E##
(2) ##E(t)## is not given by the first expression for all time - the excitation only happens at ##t = 0##.
 
Thanks for the replies and corrections.

I've written the integral down, but I mean I don't really understand how the result came out. As it appears to me, at t = inf, it will be 0, and at t = -inf, it will blow up.

I mean isn't it like this: ∫ exp(-γt + i(ω0 - ω)t)dt = 1/(-γ + i(ω0 - ω)) * exp(-γt + i(ω0 - ω)t) at t = inf and -inf

Fightfish, do you mean that the integral should start from 0 rather than -inf?
 
Josh1079 said:
Fightfish, do you mean that the integral should start from 0 rather than -inf?
Or more precisely,
<br /> E(t) = \left [ E_{0} e^{-\gamma t} e^{i \omega_{0} t} + \mathrm{c.c.} \right] \theta (t),<br />
where ##\theta(t)## is the Heaviside step function.
 
  • Like
Likes BvU
Thank you for the clarification!

This makes good sense. The negative range of the integral is indeed pretty peculiar.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
23K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K