Lorentzian line shape integration

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the integration of the Lorentzian line shape, specifically the integral of |a(ω)|², which is expressed as E(1/(i(ω-ω0) - γ) - 1/(i(ω+ω0) + γ). Participants clarify that the integral should start from 0 rather than -∞, emphasizing the role of the Heaviside step function θ(t) in the expression E(t) = [E₀ e^{-γt} e^{iω₀t} + c.c.] θ(t). Additionally, a correction is noted regarding a typo in the expression for α(ω), where E₀ should replace E.

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Josh1079
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Hi,
I know this might be a bit dum but I'm currently stuck with this integral.
In this link: http://www.pci.tu-bs.de/aggericke/PC4e/Kap_III/Linienbreite.htm

I know he's doing the right thing, but I really don't understand the integral of a(omega).
How come it is E(1/(i(ω-ω0) -γ) - 1/(i(ω+ω0) +γ))?
Does it even converge?

Thanks!
 
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Note it's not ##a(\omega)## that is integrated, but ##|a(\omega)|^2##. A Lorentzian is essentially of the form ##1\over 1+x^2## and normalizable.

Unless you wonder how the (complex) ##a(\omega)## itself is found. That is with the ##E(t)## at the top of the section. Write it out and see.
 
Note that:
(1) There is a typo in the expression for ##\alpha(\omega)## - it should be ##E_{0}## instead of ##E##
(2) ##E(t)## is not given by the first expression for all time - the excitation only happens at ##t = 0##.
 
Thanks for the replies and corrections.

I've written the integral down, but I mean I don't really understand how the result came out. As it appears to me, at t = inf, it will be 0, and at t = -inf, it will blow up.

I mean isn't it like this: ∫ exp(-γt + i(ω0 - ω)t)dt = 1/(-γ + i(ω0 - ω)) * exp(-γt + i(ω0 - ω)t) at t = inf and -inf

Fightfish, do you mean that the integral should start from 0 rather than -inf?
 
Josh1079 said:
Fightfish, do you mean that the integral should start from 0 rather than -inf?
Or more precisely,
<br /> E(t) = \left [ E_{0} e^{-\gamma t} e^{i \omega_{0} t} + \mathrm{c.c.} \right] \theta (t),<br />
where ##\theta(t)## is the Heaviside step function.
 
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Thank you for the clarification!

This makes good sense. The negative range of the integral is indeed pretty peculiar.
 

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