Lorentzian line shape integration

Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of a Lorentzian line shape, specifically focusing on the integral of the function a(ω) and its convergence properties. Participants explore the mathematical formulation and implications of the integral in the context of physics, particularly in relation to time-dependent functions and their behavior at infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion about the integral of a(ω) and questions its convergence.
  • Another participant clarifies that it is actually |a(ω)|² that is integrated, noting that a Lorentzian function is normalizable.
  • A third participant points out a typo in the expression for α(ω) and mentions that E(t) is not valid for all time, as excitation occurs only at t = 0.
  • A participant reflects on the behavior of the integral at infinity, suggesting that it approaches 0 at t = inf and blows up at t = -inf.
  • There is a suggestion that the integral should start from 0 rather than -inf, with a more precise formulation involving the Heaviside step function.
  • Another participant acknowledges the clarification regarding the negative range of the integral, finding it peculiar.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the convergence of the integral or the appropriate limits for integration, indicating that multiple views remain on these aspects.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved questions regarding the assumptions about the limits of integration and the behavior of the integral at infinity, as well as the implications of the Heaviside step function in the context of E(t).

Josh1079
Messages
45
Reaction score
0
Hi,
I know this might be a bit dum but I'm currently stuck with this integral.
In this link: http://www.pci.tu-bs.de/aggericke/PC4e/Kap_III/Linienbreite.htm

I know he's doing the right thing, but I really don't understand the integral of a(omega).
How come it is E(1/(i(ω-ω0) -γ) - 1/(i(ω+ω0) +γ))?
Does it even converge?

Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Note it's not ##a(\omega)## that is integrated, but ##|a(\omega)|^2##. A Lorentzian is essentially of the form ##1\over 1+x^2## and normalizable.

Unless you wonder how the (complex) ##a(\omega)## itself is found. That is with the ##E(t)## at the top of the section. Write it out and see.
 
Note that:
(1) There is a typo in the expression for ##\alpha(\omega)## - it should be ##E_{0}## instead of ##E##
(2) ##E(t)## is not given by the first expression for all time - the excitation only happens at ##t = 0##.
 
Thanks for the replies and corrections.

I've written the integral down, but I mean I don't really understand how the result came out. As it appears to me, at t = inf, it will be 0, and at t = -inf, it will blow up.

I mean isn't it like this: ∫ exp(-γt + i(ω0 - ω)t)dt = 1/(-γ + i(ω0 - ω)) * exp(-γt + i(ω0 - ω)t) at t = inf and -inf

Fightfish, do you mean that the integral should start from 0 rather than -inf?
 
Josh1079 said:
Fightfish, do you mean that the integral should start from 0 rather than -inf?
Or more precisely,
<br /> E(t) = \left [ E_{0} e^{-\gamma t} e^{i \omega_{0} t} + \mathrm{c.c.} \right] \theta (t),<br />
where ##\theta(t)## is the Heaviside step function.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: BvU
Thank you for the clarification!

This makes good sense. The negative range of the integral is indeed pretty peculiar.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
5K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K