Magnetic field from vector potential function using tensor notation

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around deriving the magnetic field from a vector potential function using tensor notation, specifically in the context of a uniform magnetic field. The original poster attempts to show that for a uniform magnetic field \( B_0 \), a possible vector potential function is given by \( A = \frac{1}{2} B_0 \times r \). The problem involves applying the curl operation in tensor notation and manipulating the resulting expressions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of the curl operation in tensor notation and the implications of the divergence of the position vector \( r \). Questions arise regarding the interpretation of derivatives and the use of the Kronecker delta in the context of the problem.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active with participants providing guidance on interpreting derivatives and simplifying expressions. There is a collaborative effort to clarify concepts related to tensor notation and the properties of derivatives, particularly in relation to the Kronecker delta.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraint of using tensor notation and are exploring the implications of uniform magnetic fields. There is an emphasis on understanding the mathematical relationships without jumping to conclusions or providing direct solutions.

thatguy14
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Homework Statement


We will see (in Chap. 5) that the magnetic field can be derived from a vector potential function as
follows:
B = ∇×A
Show that, in the special case of a uniform magnetic field B_{0} , one possible
vector potential function is A = \frac{1}{2}B_{0}×r

MUST USE TENSOR NOTATIONm also B0 is constant (uniform magnetic field)

Homework Equations



ε_{ijk}ε_{klm} = δ_{il}δ_{jm} - δ_{im}δ_{jl}

The Attempt at a Solution


I have tried a bunch of different things but I am missing something near the end.
Here is what I have

B = (∇×A)_{i}
B = ε_{ijk}∂_{j}A_{k}
B = ε_{ijk}∂_{j} (\frac{1}{2}ε_{klm}B_{0l}r_{m})
B = \frac{1}{2}ε_{ijk}ε_{klm}∂_{j}B_{0l}r_{m})

where ε_{ijk}ε_{klm} = δ_{il}δ_{jm} - δ_{im}δ_{jl}

So B = \frac{1}{2}[δ_{il}δ_{jm} - δ_{im}δ_{jl}]∂_{j}B_{0l}r_{m}

Changing indicies gives (noting that the derivative of constant = 0 and using the product rule)

B = \frac{1}{2}[B_{0i}∂_{m}r_{m} - B_{0l}∂_{l}r_{i}]

And that's where I am stuck. What comes next? I am assuming that with the last term there, l and i have to be equal (because if they aren't then it equals 0) and I think I have to introduct the krockner delta somewhere but I am unsure. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
 
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In the expression ##\partial_m r_m## you are summing over ##m##. Consider one term of that sum, say ##\partial_2 r_2##. Can you see what that is equal to?

You are right that you can express ##\partial_l r_i## in terms of a Kronecker delta.
 
Would ∂_{m}r_{m} just be equal to the divergence of r i.e. ∇°r?

and for expressing it as a krockner delta is it just ∂_{l}r_{i} = δ_{li}∂r?
 
thatguy14 said:
Would ∂_{m}r_{m} just be equal to the divergence of r i.e. ∇°r?
Yes. You should be able to reduce ∂_{m}r_{m} to a number.

and for expressing it as a krockner delta is it just ∂_{l}r_{i} = δ_{li}∂r?

Not quite. It's simpler than you wrote.
 
For the first thing, its just 1 right? And that's because the derivative of r with respect to r is just 1?

For the second... l has to equal i is what I am going to go with so does that mean that that portion is equal to 0? Or is that incorrect?
 
thatguy14 said:
For the first thing, its just 1 right? And that's because the derivative of r with respect to r is just 1?

no, you can't differentiate wrt a vector

(and if you mean |r|, that isn't in your equation)

instead of ∂/∂r, try ∂/∂x or ∂/∂y or ∂/∂z :smile:
 
What does the symbol ##\partial_m## stand for? It is a derivative with respect to something. What is the "something"?
 
oh... Okay then let me try again:

since r is x i + y j + z k when we take the divergence we get 3?
 
thatguy14 said:
since r is x i + y j + z k when we take the divergence we get 3?

Yes. Good.
 
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  • #10
Okay awesome (rather silly of me though)! Now for the second portion I am still lost. I am going to take a guess that it just equals 1 but I can't justify it to myself. Is that correct? and if it is why is it correct?
 
  • #11
if you get confused, remember you can always write ∂mrn as ∂xn/∂xm

which equals … ? :smile:
 
  • #12
well it would equal 1 only if the indices are equal so then is it equal to 3 also? (because of the y and z components)?

edit: looking only at the x component the indicies are summed to 3 so for the x component is it equal to 3?
 
  • #13
thatguy14 said:
well it would equal 1 only if the indices are equal …

hold it there!

so (for fixed m and n) ∂xn/∂xm = … ? :smile:
 
  • #14
Right we don't have a repeated index

that would then = 0 because you are looking at different components correct?
 
  • #15
∂xn/∂xm = δmn :wink:
 
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  • #16
hm. I can see how that works now but do you think you can explain that a little further if possible?

Also that means then I have this left with the appropriate substituitons:
\frac{1}{2}[3B_{0i} - B_{0l}δ_{li}]

so then δ_{li}] = 1 only if l = i or 0 if l ≠ i

changing indicies

\frac{1}{2}[3B_{0i} - B_{0i}δ(1)]

so then B = B_{0}

and that's it correct?

Thank you by the way guys for your help. I am very glad you didn't just give me the answers and helped me along even if it was a little silly in hindsight!
 
  • #17
thatguy14 said:
… B_{0l}δ_{li}


changing indicies

…B_{0i}δ(1)]

once you've used the δ to change the indices, the δ disappears

B_{0l}δ_{li} = B0i :smile:

(oh, and i forgot to mention: your "B =" on the LHS of all your equations should have been "Bi = " :wink:)
 
  • #18
Oh that was a mistake I knew that but thank you. You have been a wonderful help!
 

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